Be it enacted by the Queen’s most Excellent Majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled, and by the authority of the same, as follows:—
Amendments of Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984
In this Part, “the 1984 Act” means the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60).
In section 1(8) of the 1984 Act (offences for purpose of definition of prohibited article), at the end of paragraph (d) there is inserted
In section 16 of the 1984 Act (execution of warrants), after subsection (2) there is inserted—
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Section 30 of the 1984 Act (arrest elsewhere than at police station) is amended as follows.
For subsection (1) there is substituted—
In subsection (2) for “subsection (1)” there is substituted “ subsection (1A) ”.
For subsection (7) there is substituted—
For subsections (10) and (11) there is substituted—
In subsection (12) for “subsection (1)” there is substituted “ subsection (1A) or section 30A ”.
After section 30 there is inserted—
The 1984 Act is amended as follows.
In section 38 (duties of custody officer after charge)—
in subsection (1)—
for sub-paragraph (iiia) of paragraph (a) there is substituted—,
in sub-paragraph (i) of paragraph (b), after “satisfied” there is inserted “ (but, in the case of paragraph (a)(iiia) above, only if the arrested juvenile has attained the minimum age) ”,
in subsection (6A), after the definition of “local authority accommodation” there is inserted—.
In section 63B (testing for presence of Class A drugs)—
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after subsection (5) there is inserted—,
after subsection (6) there is inserted—,
after subsection (8) there is inserted—
For section 40A(1) and (2) of the 1984 Act (use of telephone for review under s.40) there is substituted—
In section 42(1) of the 1984 Act (conditions to be satisfied before detention without charge may be extended from 24 to 36 hours), for paragraph (b) there is substituted—.
In subsection (1) of section 54 of the 1984 Act (which requires the custody officer at a police station to ascertain and record everything which a detained person has with him), there is omitted “and record or cause to be recorded”.
For subsection (2) of that section (record of arrested person to be made as part of custody record) there is substituted—
Section 61 of the 1984 Act (fingerprinting) is amended as follows.
For subsections (3) and (4) (taking of fingerprints without appropriate consent) there is substituted—
In subsection (3A) (disregard of incomplete or unsatisfactory fingerprints) for the words from the beginning to “subsection (3) above” there is substituted “ Where a person mentioned in paragraph (a) of subsection (3) or (4) has already had his fingerprints taken in the course of the investigation of the offence by the police ”.
In subsection (5) (authorisation to be given or confirmed in writing) for “subsection (3)(a) or (4A)” there is substituted “ subsection (4A) ”.
In subsection (7) (reasons for taking of fingerprints without consent) for “subsection (3) or (6)” there is substituted “ subsection (3), (4) or (6) ”.
Section 63 of the 1984 Act (other samples) is amended as follows.
After subsection (2) (consent to be given in writing) there is inserted—
In subsection (3)(a) (taking of samples without appropriate consent) the words “is in police detention or” are omitted.
In subsection (3A) (taking of samples without appropriate consent after charge) for “(whether or not he falls within subsection (3)(a) above)” there is substituted “ (whether or not he is in police detention or held in custody by the police on the authority of a court) ”.
In subsection (8A) (reasons for taking of samples without consent) for “subsection (3A)” there is substituted “ subsection (2A), (3A) ”.
In section 67 of the 1984 Act (supplementary provisions about codes), for subsections (1) to (7C) there is substituted—
Section 113 of the 1984 Act (application of Act to armed forces) is amended as follows.
After subsection (3) there is inserted—
For subsections (5) to (7) there is substituted—
Schedule 1 (which makes amendments related to the provisions of this Part) has effect.
Bail
In section 3(6) of the 1976 Act (which sets out cases where bail conditions may be imposed)—
the words “to secure that” are omitted,
the words “to secure that” are inserted at the beginning of each of paragraphs (a) to (e),
after paragraph (c) there is inserted—,
for “or (c)” there is substituted “ , (c) or (ca) ”.
In section 3A(5) of the 1976 Act (no conditions may be imposed under section 3(4), (5), (6) or (7) unless necessary for certain purposes)—
the words “for the purpose of preventing that person from” are omitted,
the words “for the purpose of preventing that person from” are inserted at the beginning of each of paragraphs (a) to (c),
after paragraph (c) there is inserted
In paragraph 8(1) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the 1976 Act (no conditions may be imposed under section 3(4) to (7) unless necessary to do so for certain purposes) for the words from “that it is necessary to do so” onwards there is substituted
For paragraph 5 of Part 2 of that Schedule (defendant need not be granted bail if having been released on bail he has been arrested in pursuance of section 7) there is substituted—
For paragraph 2A of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the 1976 Act (defendant need not be granted bail where he was on bail on date of offence) there is substituted—
After paragraph 9 of that Part there is inserted—
After paragraph 9AA of that Part (inserted by section 14(2)) there is inserted—
In section 6 of the 1976 Act (offence of absconding by person released on bail) after subsection (9) there is inserted—
This section applies where a magistrates' court grants bail to a person (“the person concerned”) on adjourning a case under—
section 10 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43) (adjournment of trial),
section 17C of that Act (intention as to plea: adjournment),
section 18 of that Act (initial procedure on information against adult for offence triable either way),
section 24C of that Act (intention as to plea by child or young person: adjournment),
section 11 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6) (remand for medical examination).
Subject to the following provisions of this section, the person concerned may appeal to the Crown Court against any condition of bail falling within subsection (3).
A condition of bail falls within this subsection if it is a requirement—
that the person concerned resides away from a particular place or area,
that the person concerned resides at a particular place other than a bail hostel,
for the provision of a surety or sureties or the giving of a security,
that the person concerned remains indoors between certain hours,
imposed under section 3(6ZAA) of the 1976 Act (requirements with respect to electronic monitoring), or
that the person concerned makes no contact with another person.
An appeal under this section may not be brought unless subsection (5) or (6) applies.
This subsection applies if an application to the magistrates' court under section 3(8)(a) of the 1976 Act (application by or on behalf of person granted bail) was made and determined before the appeal was brought.
This subsection applies if an application to the magistrates' court—was made and determined before the appeal was brought.
under section 3(8)(b) of the 1976 Act (application by constable or prosecutor), or
under section 5B(1) of that Act (application by prosecutor),
On an appeal under this section the Crown Court may vary the conditions of bail.
Where the Crown Court determines an appeal under this section, the person concerned may not bring any further appeal under this section in respect of the conditions of bail unless an application or a further application to the magistrates' court under section 3(8)(a) of the 1976 Act is made and determined after the appeal.
In section 22(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1967 (c. 80) (extension of power of High Court to grant, or vary conditions of, bail)—
after “Where” there is inserted “ (a) ”, and
after “proceedings,”, in the second place where it occurs, there is inserted.
The inherent power of the High Court to entertain an application in relation to bail where a magistrates' court—is abolished.
has granted or withheld bail, or
has varied the conditions of bail,
The inherent power of the High Court to entertain an application in relation to bail where the Crown Court has determined—is abolished.
an application under section 3(8) of the 1976 Act, or
an application under section 81(1)(a), (b), (c) or (g) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54),
The High Court is to have no power to entertain an application in relation to bail where the Crown Court has determined an appeal under section 16 of this Act.
Nothing in this section affects—
any other power of the High Court to grant or withhold bail or to vary the conditions of bail, or
any right of a person to apply for a writ of habeas corpus or any other prerogative remedy.
Any reference in this section to an application in relation to bail is to be read as including—
an application for bail to be granted,
an application for bail to be withheld,
an application for the conditions of bail to be varied.
Any reference in this section to the withholding of bail is to be read as including a reference to the revocation of bail.
Section 1 of the Bail (Amendment) Act 1993 (c. 26) (prosecution right of appeal) is amended as follows.
For subsection (1) (prosecution may appeal to Crown Court judge against bail in case of offence punishable by imprisonment for five years or more etc) there is substituted—
In subsection (10)(a) for “punishable by a term of imprisonment” there is substituted “ punishable by imprisonment ”.
The 1976 Act is amended as follows.
In section 3 (general provisions), after subsection (6B) there is inserted—
In section 3A(3) (conditions of bail in case of police bail), for “, (6A) and (6B)” there is substituted “ and (6A) to (6F) ”.
In Schedule 1 (which contains supplementary provisions about bail), in Part 1 (imprisonable offences)—
after paragraph 6 there is inserted—,
in paragraph 8(1), for “(4) to (7)” there is substituted “ (4) to (6B) or (7) ”.
In Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the 1976 Act (supplementary provisions relating to bail of defendant accused or convicted of imprisonable offence) the existing text of paragraph 2 is to be sub-paragraph (1) of that paragraph, and after that sub-paragraph (as so re-numbered) there is inserted—
In paragraph 9 of that Part (matters to be taken into account in making decisions under paragraph 2 or 2A of that Part) for “2 or 2A” there is substituted “ 2(1), or in deciding whether it is satisfied as mentioned in paragraph 2A(1), 6(1) or 6A, ”.
In this Part—“bail” means bail in criminal proceedings (within the meaning of the 1976 Act),“bail hostel” has the meaning given by section 2(2) of the 1976 Act,“the 1976 Act” means the Bail Act 1976 (c. 63),“vary” has the same meaning as in the 1976 Act.
Conditional cautions
An authorised person may give a conditional caution to a person aged 18 or over (“the offender”) if each of the five requirements in section 23 is satisfied.
In this Part “conditional caution” means a caution which is given in respect of an offence committed by the offender and which has conditions attached to it with which the offender must comply.
The conditions which may be attached to any conditional caution are those which have one or more of the following objects—
facilitating the rehabilitation of the offender;
ensuring that the offender makes reparation for the offence;
punishing the offender.
The conditions which may be attached to a conditional caution include—
(subject to section 23A) a condition that the offender pay a financial penalty;
a condition that the offender attend at a specified place at specified times.“Specified” means specified in the condition.
Conditions attached by virtue of subsection (3A)(b) may not require the offender to attend for more than 20 hours in total, not including any attendance required by conditions attached for the purpose of facilitating the offender's rehabilitation.
The Secretary of State may by order amend subsection (3B) by substituting a different figure.
A conditional caution given to a relevant foreign offender may have conditions attached to it that have one or more of the objects mentioned in subsection (3E) (whether or not in addition to conditions with one or more of the objects mentioned in subsection (3)).
The objects are—
bringing about the departure of the relevant foreign offender from the United Kingdom;
ensuring that the relevant foreign offender does not return to the United Kingdom for a period of time.
If a relevant foreign offender is given a conditional caution with a condition attached to it with the object of ensuring that the offender does not return to the United Kingdom for a period of time, the expiry of that period does not of itself give rise to any right on the part of the offender to return to the United Kingdom.
In this section “relevant foreign offender” means—
an offender who has limited leave to enter or remain in the United Kingdom (within the meaning of the Immigration Act 1971),
an offender directions for whose removal from the United Kingdom have been, or may be, given under—
Schedule 2 to the Immigration Act 1971, or
section 10 of the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999, or
an offender against whom a deportation order under section 5 of the Immigration Act 1971 is in force.
In this Part “authorised person” means—
a constable,
an investigating officer, or
a person authorised by a relevant prosecutor for the purposes of this section.
The first requirement is that the authorised person has evidence that the offender has committed an offence.
The second requirement is that a relevant prosecutor or the authorised person decides—
that there is sufficient evidence to charge the offender with the offence, and
that a conditional caution should be given to the offender in respect of the offence.
The third requirement is that the offender admits to the authorised person that he committed the offence.
The fourth requirement is that the authorised person explains the effect of the conditional caution to the offender and warns him that failure to comply with any of the conditions attached to the caution may result in his being prosecuted for the offence.
The fifth requirement is that the offender signs a document which contains—
details of the offence,
an admission by him that he committed the offence,
his consent to being given the conditional caution, and
the conditions attached to the caution.
Before deciding what conditions to attach to a conditional caution, a relevant prosecutor or the authorised person must make reasonable efforts to obtain the views of the victim (if any) of the offence, and in particular the victim's views as to whether the offender should carry out any of the actions listed in the community remedy document.
If the victim expresses the view that the offender should carry out a particular action listed in the community remedy document, the prosecutor or authorised person must attach that as a condition unless it seems to the prosecutor or authorised person that it would be inappropriate to do so.
Where—the prosecutor or authorised person must nevertheless take account of any views expressed by the victim (or victims) in deciding what conditions to attach to the conditional caution.
there is more than one victim and they express different views, or
for any other reason subsection (2) does not apply,
In this section—“community remedy document” means the community remedy document (as revised from time to time) published under section 101 of the Anti-social Behaviour, Crime and Policing Act 2014 for the police area in which the offence was committed;“victim” means the particular person who seems to the relevant prosecutor or authorised person to have been affected, or principally affected, by the offence.
A condition that the offender pay a financial penalty (a “financial penalty condition”) may not be attached to a conditional caution given in respect of an offence unless the offence is one that is prescribed, or of a description prescribed, in an order made by the Secretary of State.
An order under subsection (1) must prescribe, in respect of each offence or description of offence in the order, the maximum amount of the penalty that may be specified under subsection (5)(a).
The amount that may be prescribed in respect of any offence(other than one to which subsection (4A) applies) must not exceed—whichever is the lower.
one quarter of the amount of the maximum fine for which a person is liable on summary conviction of the offence, or
£250,
The Secretary of State may by order amend subsection (3) by—
substituting a different fraction in paragraph (a);
substituting a different figure in paragraph (b).
In the case of an offence for which a person is liable on summary conviction to a fine of an unlimited amount, the amount that may be prescribed must not exceed the amount for the time being specified in subsection (3)(b).
Where a financial penalty condition is attached to a conditional caution, the condition must specify—
the amount of the penalty,
the person to whom the financial penalty is to be paid and how it may be paid.
To comply with the condition, the offender must pay the penalty in accordance with the provision specified under subsection (5)(b).
Where a financial penalty is (in accordance with the provision specified under subsection (5)(b)) paid to a person other than a designated officer for a local justice area, the person to whom it is paid must give the payment to such an officer.
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A relevant prosecutor or an authorised person may, with the consent of the offender, vary the conditions attached to a conditional caution by—
modifying or omitting any of the conditions;
adding a condition.
If the offender fails, without reasonable excuse, to comply with any of the conditions attached to the conditional caution, criminal proceedings may be instituted against the person for the offence in question.
The document mentioned in section 23(5) is to be admissible in such proceedings.
Where such proceedings are instituted, the conditional caution is to cease to have effect.
If a constable has reasonable grounds for believing that the offender has failed, without reasonable excuse, to comply with any of the conditions attached to the conditional caution, he may arrest him without warrant.
A person arrested under this section must be—
charged with the offence in question,
released without charge and on bail if—
the release is to enable a decision to be made as to whether the person should be charged with the offence, and
the pre-conditions for bail are satisfied, or
released without charge and without bail (with or without any variation in the conditions attached to the caution) if paragraph (b) does not apply.
Subsection (2) also applies in the case of—
a person who, having been released on bail under subsection (2)(b), returns to a police station to answer bail or is otherwise in police detention at a police station;
a person who, having been released on bail under section 30A of the 1984 Act (bail elsewhere than at police station) as applied by section 24B below, attends at a police station to answer bail or is otherwise in police detention at a police station;
a person who is arrested under section 30D or 46A of the 1984 Act (power of arrest for failure to answer to police bail) as applied by section 24B below.
Where a person is released under subsection (2)(b), the custody officer must inform him that he is being released to enable a decision to be made as to whether he should be charged with the offence in question.
A person arrested under this section, or any other person in whose case subsection (2) applies, may be kept in police detention—If the person is not in a fit state to enable him to be so dealt with, or to enable that power to be exercised, he may be kept in police detention until he is.
to enable him to be dealt with in accordance with that subsection, or
where applicable, to enable the power under section 47(4A) of the 1984 Act (power of custody officer to appoint a different or additional time for answering to police bail), as applied by section 24B below, to be exercised.
The power under subsection (5)(a) includes power to keep the person in police detention if it is necessary to do so for the purpose of investigating whether he has failed, without reasonable excuse, to comply with any of the conditions attached to the conditional caution.
Subsection (2) must be complied with as soon as practicable after the person arrested arrives at the police station or, in the case of a person arrested at the police station, as soon as practicable after the arrest.
Subsection (2) does not require a person who—to be released if he is liable to be kept in detention in relation to that other matter.
falls within subsection (3)(a) or (b), and
is in police detention in relation to a matter other than the conditional caution,
In subsection (2) the reference to the pre-conditions for bail is to be read in accordance with section 50A of the 1984 Act.
In this Part—“the 1984 Act” means the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984;“police detention” has the same meaning as in the 1984 Act (see section 118(2) of that Act).
In the case of a person arrested under section 24A, the provisions of the 1984 Act specified in subsection (2) apply, with the modifications specified in subsection (3) and with such further modifications as are necessary, as they apply in the case of a person arrested for an offence.
The provisions are—
section 30 (arrest elsewhere than at police station);
sections 30A to 30D (bail elsewhere than at police station);
section 31 (arrest for further offence);
section 34(1) to(5E)(limitations on police detention);
section 36 (custody officers at police stations);
section 37(4) to(6C)(record of grounds for detention);
section 38 (duties of custody officer after charge);
section 39 (responsibilities in relation to persons detained);
section 55A (x-rays and ultrasound scans).
The modifications are—
in section 30CA, omit subsections (4A) to (4D);
in section 30CA(5), in paragraph (a) of the definition of “relevant officer”, for the reference to being involved in the investigation of the relevant offence substitute a reference to being involved—
in the investigation of the offence in respect of which the person was given the conditional caution, or
in investigating whether the person has failed, without reasonable excuse, to comply with any of the conditions attached to the conditional caution;
in section 36(5) and (7), for the references to being involved in the investigation of an offence for which the person is in police detention substitute references to being involved—
in the investigation of the offence in respect of which the person was given the conditional caution, or
in investigating whether the person has failed, without reasonable excuse, to comply with any of the conditions attached to the conditional caution;
in section 38(1)(a)(iii) and (iv), for “arrested for” substitute “charged with”;
in section 39(2) and (3), for the references to an offence substitute references to a failure to comply with conditions attached to the conditional caution.
omit subsections (8) and (8A);
in subsection (9), for the reference to section 37(9) or 37D(5) substitute a reference to the second sentence of section 24A(5) above.
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section 46A (power of arrest for failure to answer to police bail);
section 47 (bail after arrest) except subsections (4D) and (4E).
Section 54 of the 1984 Act (searches of detained persons) applies in the case of a person who falls within subsection (3) of section 24A above and is detained in a police station under that section as it applies in the case of a person who falls within section 34(7) of that Act and is detained at a police station under section 37.
Section 54A of the 1984 Act (searches and examination to ascertain identity) applies with the following modifications in the case of a person who is detained in a police station under section 24A above—
in subsections (1)(a) and (12), after “as a person involved in the commission of an offence” insert “or as having failed to comply with any of the conditions attached to his conditional caution”;
in subsection (9)(a), after “the investigation of an offence” insert “, the investigation of whether the person in question has failed to comply with any of the conditions attached to his conditional caution”.
The Secretary of State must prepare a code of practice in relation to conditional cautions.
The code may, in particular, include provision as to—
the circumstances in which conditional cautions may be given,
the procedure to be followed in connection with the giving of such cautions,
the conditions which may be attached to such cautions and the time for which they may have effect,
the category of constable or investigating officer by whom such cautions may be given,
the persons who may be authorised by a relevant prosecutor for the purposes of section 22,
the form which such cautions are to take and the manner in which they are to be given and recorded,
the places where such cautions may be given, . . .
the provision which may be made in a condition under section 23A(5)(b),
the monitoring of compliance with conditions attached to such cautions.
the exercise of the power of arrest conferred by section 24A(1), and
who is to decide how a person should be dealt with under section 24A(2).
After preparing a draft of the code the Secretary of State—but he may not publish or amend the draft without the consent of the Attorney General.
must publish the draft,
must consider any representations made to him about the draft, and
may amend the draft accordingly,
After the Secretary of State has proceeded under subsection (3) he must lay the code before each House of Parliament.
When he has done so he may bring the code into force by order.
The Secretary of State may from time to time revise a code of practice brought into force under this section.
Subsections (3) to (6) are to apply (with appropriate modifications) to a revised code as they apply to an original code.
Section 1 of the Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000 (c. 43) (purposes of Chapter 1) is amended as follows.
After subsection (1) there is inserted—
After subsection (3) there is inserted—
In this Part—“authorised person” has the meaning given by section 22(4),“conditional caution” has the meaning given by section 22(2),“investigating officer” means an officer of Revenue and Customs, appointed in accordance with section 2(1) of the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, or a person designated as a policing support officer or a policing support volunteer under section 38 of the Police Reform Act 2002 (c. 30),“the offender” has the meaning given by section 22(1),“relevant prosecutor” means—the Attorney General, the Director of the Serious Fraud Office,... the Director of Public Prosecutions, a Secretary of State,. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . a person who is specified in an order made by the Secretary of State as being a relevant prosecutor for the purposes of this Part.
Charging etc
Schedule 2 (which makes provision in relation to the charging or release of persons in police detention) shall have effect.
A relevant prosecutor may institute criminal proceedings against a person by issuing a document (a “written charge”) which charges the person with an offence.
Where a relevant prosecutor issues a written charge, it must at the same time issue—
a requisition, or
a single justice procedure notice.
A single justice procedure notice may be issued only if—
the offence is a summary offence not punishable with imprisonment, and
the person being charged has attained the age of 18, or is not an individual.
A requisition is a document which requires the person on whom it is served to appear before a magistrates' court to answer the written charge.
A single justice procedure notice is a document which requires the person on whom it is served to serve on the designated officer for a magistrates' court specified in the notice a written notification stating—
whether the person desires to plead guilty or not guilty, and
if the person desires to plead guilty, whether or not the person desires to be tried in accordance with section 16A of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980.
Subsection(2D) applies if—
the offence is specified in regulations under section 16H(3)(a) of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, and
the relevant prosecutor decides that it would be appropriate for the automatic online conviction option to be offered (see section 16G(1) of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980).
The single justice procedure notice must also explain—
the steps that the person on whom the notice is served can take if the person wants to be offered the automatic online conviction option, and
that if the person is offered, and accepts, that option, the requirements referred to in subsection (2B) will no longer apply.
The Lord Chancellor may by order make provision about the matters that are to be taken into account by a relevant prosecutor before deciding as mentioned in subsection(2C)(b).
Where a relevant prosecutor issues a written charge and a requisition, the written charge and requisition must be served on the person concerned, and a copy of both must be served on the court named in the requisition.
Where a relevant prosecutor issues a written charge and a single justice procedure notice, the written charge and notice must be served on the person concerned, and a copy of both must be served on the designated officer specified in the notice.
If a single justice procedure notice is served on a person, the relevant prosecutor must—
at the same time serve on the person such documents as may be prescribed by Criminal Procedure Rules, and
serve copies of those documents on the designated officer specified in the notice.
The written notification required by a single justice procedure notice may be served by the legal representative of the person charged on the person's behalf.
A relevant prosecutor authorised to issue a requisition is not to have the power to lay an information for the purpose of obtaining the issue of a summons under section 1 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43).
In this section “relevant prosecutor” means—
a police force or a person authorised by a police force to institute criminal proceedings,
the Director of the Serious Fraud Office or a person authorised by him to institute criminal proceedings,
the Director of Public Prosecutions or a person authorised by him to institute criminal proceedings,
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the Director General of the National Crime Agency or a person authorised by him to institute criminal proceedings;
the Attorney General or a person authorised by him to institute criminal proceedings,
a Secretary of State or a person authorised by a Secretary of State to institute criminal proceedings,
the Commissioners of Inland Revenue or a person authorised by them to institute criminal proceedings,
the Commissioners of Customs and Excise or a person authorised by them to institute criminal proceedings, or
a person specified in an order made by the Secretary of State for the purposes of this section or a person authorised by such a person to institute criminal proceedings.
An order under subsection (5)(h) specifying a person for the purposes of this section must also specify whether that person and a person authorised by that person to institute criminal proceedings—
are authorised to issue written charges, requisitions and single justice procedure notices, or
are authorised to issue only written charges and single justice procedure notices.
In subsection (5) “police force” has the meaning given by section 3(3) of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 (c. 23).
Criminal Procedure Rules may make—
provision as to the form, content, recording, authentication and service of written charges, requisitions or single justice procedure notices, and
such other provision in relation to written charges, requisitions or single justice procedure notices as appears to the Criminal Procedure Rule Committee to be necessary or expedient.
Without limiting subsection (1), the provision which may be made by virtue of that subsection includes provision—
which applies (with or without modifications), or which disapplies, the provision of any enactment relating to the service of documents,
for or in connection with the issue of further requisitions or further single justice procedure notices.
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Nothing in section 29 affects—
the power of a public prosecutor to lay an information for the purpose of obtaining the issue of a warrant under section 1 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43),
the power of a person who is not a public prosecutor to lay an information for the purpose of obtaining the issue of a summons or warrant under section 1 of that Act, or
any power to charge a person with an offence whilst he is in custody.
Except where the context otherwise requires, in any enactment contained in an Act passed before this Act—
any reference (however expressed) which is or includes a reference to an information within the meaning of section 1 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43) (or to the laying of such an information) is to be read as including a reference to a written charge (or to the issue of a written charge),
any reference (however expressed) which is or includes a reference to a summons under section 1 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (or to a justice of the peace issuing such a summons) is to be read as including a reference to a requisition (or to a relevant prosecutor issuing a requisition), and
any reference (however expressed) which is or includes a reference to a summons under section 1 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (or to a justice of the peace issuing such a summons) is to be read as including a reference to a single justice procedure notice (or to a relevant prosecutor issuing a single justice procedure notice).
Subsection (5) does not apply to section 1 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980.
The reference in subsection (5) to an enactment contained in an Act passed before this Act includes a reference to an enactment contained in that Act as a result of an amendment to that Act made by this Act or by any other Act passed in the same Session as this Act.
The reference in subsection (5) to an enactment contained in an Act passed before this Act is to be read, in relation to paragraph (c) of subsection (5), as including—
a reference to an enactment contained in an Act passed before or in the same Session as the Criminal Justice and Courts Act 2015, and
a reference to an enactment contained in such an Act as a result of an amendment to that Act made by the Criminal Justice and Courts Act 2015 or by any other Act passed in the same Session as the Criminal Justice and Courts Act 2015.
In this section “relevant prosecutor”, “requisition”, “single justice procedure notice” and “written charge” have the same meaning as in section 29.
In section 1(3) of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (warrant may not be issued unless information substantiated on oath) the words “and substantiated on oath” are omitted.
In section 13 of that Act (non-appearance of defendant: issue of warrant) in subsection (3)(a) the words “the information has been substantiated on oath and” are omitted.
For subsection (3A)(a) of that section there is substituted—.
Disclosure
In the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 (c. 25) (in this Part referred to as “the 1996 Act”), in subsection (1)(a) of section 3 (primary disclosure by prosecutor)—
for “in the prosecutor’s opinion might undermine” there is substituted “ might reasonably be considered capable of undermining ”;
after “against the accused” there is inserted “ or of assisting the case for the accused ”.
In section 5 of the 1996 Act (compulsory disclosure by accused), after subsection (5) there is inserted—
After section 6 of that Act there is inserted—
After section 6A of that Act (inserted by subsection (2) above) there is inserted—
After section 6B of the 1996 Act (inserted by section 33 above) there is inserted—
After section 6C of the 1996 Act (inserted by section 34 above) there is inserted—
After section 6D of the 1996 Act (inserted by section 35 above) there is inserted—
Before section 8 of the 1996 Act there is inserted—
In section 8 of the 1996 Act (application by accused for disclosure), for subsections (1) and (2) there is substituted—
For section 11 of the 1996 Act there is substituted—
In Part 1 of the 1996 Act after section 21 there is inserted—
Allocation and sending of offences
Schedule 3 (which makes provision in relation to the allocation and other treatment of offences triable either way, and the sending of cases to the Crown Court) shall have effect.
The Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 is amended as follows.
In section 24 (summary trial of information against child or young person for indictable offence)—
in subsection (1), for “homicide” there is substituted “ one falling within subsection (1B) below ”,
in subsection (1A)(a), for “of homicide” there is substituted “ falling within subsection (1B) below ”,
after subsection (1A), there is inserted—
In section 25 (power to change from summary trial to committal proceedings and vice versa), in subsection (5), for “homicide” there is substituted “ one falling within section 24(1B) above ”.
Trials on indictment without a jury
This section applies where—
one or more defendants are to be tried on indictment for one or more offences, and
notice has been given under section 51B of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (c. 37) (notices in serious or complex fraud cases) in respect of that offence or those offences.
The prosecution may apply to a judge of the Crown Court for the trial to be conducted without a jury.
If an application under subsection (2) is made and the judge is satisfied that the condition in subsection (5) is fulfilled, he may make an order that the trial is to be conducted without a jury; but if he is not so satisfied he must refuse the application.
The judge may not make such an order without the approval of the Lord Chief Justice or a judge nominated by him.
The condition is that the complexity of the trial or the length of the trial (or both) is likely to make the trial so burdensome to the members of a jury hearing the trial that the interests of justice require that serious consideration should be given to the question of whether the trial should be conducted without a jury.
In deciding whether or not he is satisfied that that condition is fulfilled, the judge must have regard to any steps which might reasonably be taken to reduce the complexity or length of the trial.
But a step is not to be regarded as reasonable if it would significantly disadvantage the prosecution.
This section applies where one or more defendants are to be tried on indictment for one or more offences.
The prosecution may apply to a judge of the Crown Court for the trial to be conducted without a jury.
If an application under subsection (2) is made and the judge is satisfied that both of the following two conditions are fulfilled, he must make an order that the trial is to be conducted without a jury; but if he is not so satisfied he must refuse the application.
The first condition is that there is evidence of a real and present danger that jury tampering would take place.
The second condition is that, notwithstanding any steps (including the provision of police protection) which might reasonably be taken to prevent jury tampering, the likelihood that it would take place would be so substantial as to make it necessary in the interests of justice for the trial to be conducted without a jury.
The following are examples of cases where there may be evidence of a real and present danger that jury tampering would take place—
a case where the trial is a retrial and the jury in the previous trial was discharged because jury tampering had taken place,
a case where jury tampering has taken place in previous criminal proceedings involving the defendant or any of the defendants,
a case where there has been intimidation, or attempted intimidation, of any person who is likely to be a witness in the trial.
“the 1987 Act” means the Criminal Justice Act 1987 (c. 38),“the 1996 Act” means the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 (c. 25).
This section applies—
to an application under section 43, and
to an application under section 44.
An application to which this section applies must be determined at a preparatory hearing (within the meaning of the 1987 Act or Part 3 of the 1996 Act).
The parties to a preparatory hearing at which an application to which this section applies is to be determined must be given an opportunity to make representations with respect to the application.
In section 7(1) of the 1987 Act (which sets out the purposes of preparatory hearings) for paragraphs (a) to (c) there is substituted—.
In section 9(11) of that Act (appeal to Court of Appeal) after “above,” there is inserted “ from the refusal by a judge of an application to which section 45 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 applies or from an order of a judge under section 43 or 44 of that Act which is made on the determination of such an application, ”.
In section 29 of the 1996 Act (power to order preparatory hearing) after subsection (1) there is inserted—
In subsection (2) of that section (which sets out the purposes of preparatory hearings) for paragraphs (a) to (c) there is substituted—.
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
In section 35(1) of that Act (appeal to Court of Appeal) after “31(3),” there is inserted “ from the refusal by a judge of an application to which section 45 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 applies or from an order of a judge under section 43 or 44 of that Act which is made on the determination of such an application, ”.
In this section—
This section applies where—
a judge is minded during a trial on indictment to discharge the jury, and
he is so minded because jury tampering appears to have taken place.
Before taking any steps to discharge the jury, the judge must—
inform the parties that he is minded to discharge the jury,
inform the parties of the grounds on which he is so minded, and
allow the parties an opportunity to make representations.
Where the judge, after considering any such representations, discharges the jury, he may make an order that the trial is to continue without a jury if, but only if, he is satisfied—but this is subject to subsection (4).
that jury tampering has taken place, and
that to continue the trial without a jury would be fair to the defendant or defendants;
If the judge considers that it is necessary in the interests of justice for the trial to be terminated, he must terminate the trial.
Where the judge terminates the trial under subsection (4), he may make an order that any new trial which is to take place must be conducted without a jury if he is satisfied in respect of the new trial that both of the conditions set out in section 44 are likely to be fulfilled.
Subsection (5) is without prejudice to any other power that the judge may have on terminating the trial.
Such an appeal may be brought only with the leave of the judge or the Court of Appeal.
An order from which an appeal under this section lies is not to take effect—
before the expiration of the period for bringing an appeal under this section, or
if such an appeal is brought, before the appeal is finally disposed of or abandoned.
On the termination of the hearing of an appeal under this section, the Court of Appeal may confirm or revoke the order.
Subject to rules of court made under section 53(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54) (power by rules to distribute business of Court of Appeal between its civil and criminal divisions)—
the jurisdiction of the Court of Appeal under this section is to be exercised by the criminal division of that court, and
references in this section to the Court of Appeal are to be construed as references to that division.
In section 33(1) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19) (right of appeal to House of Lords) after “1996” there is inserted “ or section 47 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”.
In section 36 of that Act (bail on appeal by defendant) after “hearings)” there is inserted “ or section 47 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”.
The Secretary of State may make an order containing provision, in relation to proceedings before the Court of Appeal under this section, which corresponds to any provision, in relation to appeals or other proceedings before that court, which is contained in the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (subject to any specified modifications).
The effect of an order under section 46(3) is that the trial to which the order relates is to be continued without a jury.
Where a trial is conducted or continued without a jury, the court is to have all the powers, authorities and jurisdiction which the court would have had if the trial had been conducted or continued with a jury (including power to determine any question and to make any finding which would be required to be determined or made by a jury).
Except where the context otherwise requires, any reference in an enactment to a jury, the verdict of a jury or the finding of a jury is to be read, in relation to a trial conducted or continued without a jury, as a reference to the court, the verdict of the court or the finding of the court.
Where a trial is conducted or continued without a jury and the court convicts a defendant—
the court must give a judgment which states the reasons for the conviction at, or as soon as reasonably practicable after, the time of the conviction, and
the reference in section 18(2) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19) (notice of appeal or of application for leave to appeal to be given within 28 days from date of conviction etc) to the date of the conviction is to be read as a reference to the date of the judgment mentioned in paragraph (a).
Nothing in this Part affects the requirement under section 4A of the Criminal Procedure (Insanity) Act 1964 that any question, finding or verdict mentioned in that section be determined, made or returned by a jury.
Rules of court may make such provision as appears to the authority making them to be necessary or expedient for the purposes of this Part.
Without limiting subsection (1), rules of court may in particular make provision for time limits within which applications under this Part must be made or within which other things in connection with this Part must be done.
Nothing in this section is to be taken as affecting the generality of any enactment conferring powers to make rules of court.
In its application to Northern Ireland this Part is to have effect—
subject to subsection (2), and
subject to the modifications in subsections (3) to (16).
This Part does not apply in relation to a trial to which section 75 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (trial without jury for certain offences) applies.
For section 45 substitute—
For section 47(1) substitute—
In section 47(3) after “order” insert “ or a refusal of an application ”.
In section 47(4) for “confirm or revoke the order” substitute—.
Omit section 47(5).
For section 47(6) substitute—
For section 47(7) substitute—
In section 47(8)
for “Secretary of State” substitute Department of Justice in Northern Ireland; and
for “Criminal Appeal Act 1968” substitute “ Criminal Appeal (Northern Ireland) Act 1980 ”.
In section 48(4) after “enactment” insert “ (including any provision of Northern Ireland legislation) ”.
For section 48(5)(b) substitute—
In section 48(6)—
for “section 4A of the Criminal Procedure (Insanity) Act 1964” substitute Article 49A of the Mental Health (Northern Ireland) Order 1986, and
for “that section” substitute that Article.
After section 48 insert—
For section 49(2) substitute—
In section 49(3)—
after “section” insert “ or section 45(2)(b) ”, and
after “enactment” insert “ (including any provision of Northern Ireland legislation) ”.
Live links
The court may, by a direction, require or permit a person to take part in eligible criminal proceedings through—
a live audio link, or
a live video link.
A direction under this section may be given in relation to a member of a jury only if the direction requires all members of the jury to take part through a live video link while present at the same place.
In this Part “eligible criminal proceedings” means—
a preliminary hearing (see section 56(1)),
a summary trial,
a criminal appeal to the Crown Court and any proceedings that are preliminary or incidental to such an appeal,
a trial on indictment or any other trial in the Crown Court for an offence,
proceedings under section 4A or 5 of the Criminal Procedure (Insanity) Act 1964,
proceedings under Part 3 of the Mental Health Act 1983,
proceedings under—
section 11 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000, or
section 81(1)(g) of the Senior Courts Act 1981 or section 16 of this Act in respect of a person who has been remanded by a magistrates’ court on adjourning a case under that section of the 2000 Act,
an appeal to the criminal division of the Court of Appeal and any proceedings that are preliminary or incidental to such an appeal,
a reference to the Court of Appeal by the Attorney General under Part 4 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 and any proceedings that are preliminary or incidental to such a reference,
a hearing before a magistrates’ court or the Crown Court which is held after the defendant has entered a plea of guilty,
a hearing under section 142(1) or (2) of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980,
a hearing before the Court of Appeal under section 80 of this Act and any proceedings that are preliminary or incidental to such a hearing,
any hearing following conviction held for the purpose of making a decision about bail in respect of the person convicted,
a sentencing hearing (see section 56(1)), or
an enforcement hearing (see section 56(1)).
The court may not give a direction under this section unless—
the court is satisfied that it is in the interests of justice for the person to whom the direction relates to take part in the proceedings in accordance with the direction through the live audio link or live video link,
the parties to the proceedings have been given the opportunity to make representations, and
if so required by section 52(9), the relevant youth offending team has been given the opportunity to make representations.
In deciding whether to give a direction under this section, the court must consider—
any guidance given by the Lord Chief Justice, and
all the circumstances of the case.
Those circumstances include in particular—
the availability of the person to whom the direction would relate,
any need for that person to attend in person,
the views of that person,
the suitability of the facilities at the place where that person would take part in the proceedings in accordance with the direction,
whether that person would be able to take part in the proceedings effectively if the person took part in accordance with the direction,
in the case of a direction relating to a witness—
the importance of the witness’s evidence to the proceedings, and
whether the direction might tend to inhibit any party to the proceedings from effectively testing the witness’s evidence, and
the arrangements that would or could be put in place for members of the public to see or hear the proceedings as conducted in accordance with the direction.
The power conferred by section 51 includes power to give—
a direction that is applicable to several, or all, of the persons taking part in particular eligible criminal proceedings;
a direction that is applicable to a particular person in respect of only some aspects of particular eligible criminal proceedings (such as giving evidence or attending the proceedings when not giving evidence);
a direction requiring or permitting a person who is outside England and Wales (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) to take part in eligible criminal proceedings through a live audio link or a live video link.
The court may vary or rescind a direction under section 51 at any time before or during the eligible criminal proceedings to which it relates (but this does not affect the court’s power to give a further direction under that section in relation to the proceedings).
A direction under section 51 may not be rescinded unless—
the court is satisfied that it is in the interests of justice for the direction to be rescinded,
the parties to the proceedings have been given the opportunity to make representations, and
if so required by subsection (9), the relevant youth offending team has been given the opportunity to make representations.
In relation to the variation of a direction given under section 51—
so far as the effect of the variation would be to allow a person to take part in eligible criminal proceedings through a live audio link or a live video link, or to alter (without removing) a person’s ability to do so, sections 51(4) and 53(1) to (3) apply as they apply to the giving of a direction;
so far as the effect of the variation would be to remove a person’s ability to take part in eligible criminal proceedings through a live audio link or a live video link, subsection (3) applies as it applies to the rescission of a direction.
A direction under section 51 may be given, varied or rescinded—But a party may not apply for a variation or rescission unless there has been a material change of circumstances since the direction was given or last varied.
on an application by a party to the proceedings, or
of the court’s own motion.
The court must state in open court its reasons for refusing an application for the giving, variation or rescission of a direction under section 51 and, if it is a magistrates’ court, must cause them to be entered in the register of its proceedings.
If a hearing takes place in relation to the giving, variation or rescission of a direction under section 51, the court may require or permit a person to take part in that hearing through—
a live audio link, or
a live video link.
The requirement referred to in section 51(4)(c) and subsection (3)(c) arises in a case where—
the defendant is a party to the proceedings, and
either—
the defendant has not attained the age of 18 years, or
the defendant has attained the age of 18 years but the court is dealing with the case as if the defendant had not attained that age.
A person who takes part in eligible criminal proceedings in accordance with a direction under section 51 is to be treated as complying with any requirement (however imposed or expressed) for that person to attend or appear before court, or to surrender to the custody of the court, for the purposes of that participation in those proceedings.
A person who takes part in eligible criminal proceedings in accordance with a direction under section 51 is to be treated as present in court for the purposes of those proceedings.
If eligible criminal proceedings are conducted with one or more persons taking part in accordance with a direction under section 51, the proceedings are to be regarded as taking place—
if at least one member of the court is taking part in the proceedings while in a courtroom, in that courtroom (or, if more than one courtroom falls within this paragraph, such of them as the court directs),
if no member of the court, but at least one other person, is taking part in the proceedings while in a courtroom, in that courtroom (or, if more than one courtroom falls within this paragraph, such of them as the court directs), or
if no person is taking part in the proceedings while in a courtroom, at such place as the court directs (being a place where the court could lawfully sit for the purposes of those proceedings).
In subsection (3), “courtroom” includes any place where proceedings of the sort in question might ordinarily be held (if no person were taking part in the proceedings in accordance with a direction under section 51).
A statement made on oath by a witness outside the United Kingdom and given in evidence through a live audio link or a live video link in accordance with a direction under section 51 is to be treated for the purposes of section 1 of the Perjury Act 1911 as having been made in the proceedings in which it is given in evidence.
Subsections (2) and (3) apply where—
a magistrates' court is minded to give a direction under section 51 requiring or permitting a person to take part in proceedings before the court through a live audio link or a live video link, and
suitable facilities for such participation are not available at any place at which the court can (apart from subsection (2)) lawfully sit.
The court may sit for the purposes of the whole or any part of the proceedings at any place at which such facilities are available and which has been authorised by a direction under section 30 of the Courts Act 2003.
If the place mentioned in subsection (2) is outside the local justice area in which the justices act it shall be deemed to be in that area for the purpose of the jurisdiction of the justices acting in that area.
The following functions of a magistrates’ court may be discharged by a single justice—
requiring or permitting, under section 52(8), a person to take part by live audio link or live video link in a hearing about a matter within paragraph (a) or (b).
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
This section applies where, as a result of a direction under section 51, evidence has been given through a live audio link or a live video link by a witness (including the defendant) in proceedings before the Crown Court.
The judge may give the jury (if there is one) such direction as he thinks necessary to ensure that the jury gives the same weight to the evidence as if it had been given by the witness in the courtroom or other place where the proceedings are held.
Criminal Procedure Rules may make such provision as appears to the Criminal Procedure Rule Committee to be necessary or expedient for the purposes of this Part.
Criminal Procedure Rules may in particular make provision—
as to the procedure to be followed in connection with applications under section 52(6), and
as to the arrangements or safeguards to be put in place in connection with the operation of live audio links and live video links.
The provision which may be made by virtue of subsection (2)(a) includes provision—
for ... applications to be determined by the court without a hearing,
for preventing the renewal of an unsuccessful application under section 52(6) unless there has been a material change of circumstances,
for the manner in which confidential or sensitive information is to be treated in connection with an application under section 52(6) and in particular as to its being disclosed to, or withheld from, a party to the proceedings.
Nothing in this section is to be taken as affecting the generality of any enactment conferring power to make Criminal Procedure Rules.
.... . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .“bail” includes remand to local authority accommodation in accordance with Chapter 3 of Part 3 of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012,“defendant” includes the person accused or convicted of an offence and, in the case of an enforcement hearing, the person liable to pay the sum or financial penalty concerned,“eligible criminal proceedings” has the meaning given in section 51(3),“enforcement hearing” means a hearing relating to collection, discharge, satisfaction or enforcement of—a sum that has been adjudged to be paid on conviction for an offence by a magistrates’ court or the Crown Court, or a financial penalty that is enforceable in accordance with section 85(6) and (7) of the Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008 as if it were such a sum (including a hearing to determine whether a financial penalty is so enforceable),“live audio link”, in relation to a person (P) taking part in proceedings, means a live telephone link or other arrangement which—enables P to hear all other persons taking part in the proceedings who are not in the same location as P, and enables all other persons taking part in the proceedings who are not in the same location as P to hear P,“live video link”, in relation to a person (P) taking part in proceedings, means a live television link or other arrangement which—enables P to see and hear all other persons taking part in the proceedings who are not in the same location as P, and enables all other persons taking part in the proceedings who are not in the same location as P to see and hear P,“local justice area” has the same meaning as in the Courts Act 2003 (c. 39),“preliminary hearing” means a hearing in proceedings for an offence held before the start of the trial (within the meaning of subsection (11A) or (11B) of section 22 of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985), including, in the case of proceedings in the Crown Court, a preparatory hearing held under—section 7 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 (cases of serious or complex fraud), or section 29 of the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 (other serious, complex or lengthy cases),“relevant youth offending team” means the youth offending team (established under section 39 of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998) whose functions are exercisable in relation to the defendant concerned,“sentencing hearing” means any hearing following conviction for an offence which is held for the purpose of—proceedings (in a magistrates’ court) relating to committal to the Crown Court for sentencing, sentencing the offender or determining how the court should deal with the offender in respect of the offence (including reviewing, amending or revoking such a sentence or determination), or determining—how the offender has complied with a sentence given in respect of the offence, or how the offender should be dealt with in respect of compliance with such a sentence, and here “sentence” includes any way in which a court has determined that the offender should be dealt with in respect of the offence,. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .“witness”, in relation to any criminal proceedings, means a person called, or proposed to be called, to give evidence in the proceedings.
In this Part—
In this Part, reference to taking part in proceedings means taking part in whatever capacity, including hearing the proceedings as a member of the court.
In the application of this Part in relation to a witness, a reference to taking part in proceedings includes attending those proceedings for a purpose preliminary or incidental to the giving of evidence.
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
The following matters are to be disregarded for the purposes of the definitions of “live audio link” and “live video link” in subsection (1)—
the extent (if any) to which a person is unable to see or hear by reason of any impairment of eyesight or hearing;
the effect of any direction or order which provides for one person taking part in proceedings to be prevented by means of a screen or other arrangement from seeing another person taking part in the proceedings.
Nothing in this Part is to be regarded as affecting any power of a court—
to make an order, give directions or give leave of any description in relation to any witness (including the defendant or defendants), or
to exclude evidence at its discretion (whether by preventing questions being put or otherwise).
Prosecution appeals
Introduction
In relation to a trial on indictment, the prosecution is to have the rights of appeal for which provision is made by this Part.
But the prosecution is to have no right of appeal under this Part in respect of—
a ruling that a jury be discharged, or
a ruling from which an appeal lies to the Court of Appeal by virtue of any other enactment.
An appeal under this Part is to lie to the Court of Appeal.
Such an appeal may be brought only with the leave of the judge or the Court of Appeal.
General right of appeal in respect of rulings
This section applies where a judge makes a ruling in relation to a trial on indictment at an applicable time and the ruling relates to one or more offences included in the indictment.
The prosecution may appeal in respect of the ruling in accordance with this section.
The ruling is to have no effect whilst the prosecution is able to take any steps under subsection (4).
The prosecution may not appeal in respect of the ruling unless—
following the making of the ruling, it—
informs the court that it intends to appeal, or
requests an adjournment to consider whether to appeal, and
if such an adjournment is granted, it informs the court following the adjournment that it intends to appeal.
If the prosecution requests an adjournment under subsection (4)(a)(ii), the judge may grant such an adjournment.
Where the ruling relates to two or more offences—
any one or more of those offences may be the subject of the appeal, and
if the prosecution informs the court in accordance with subsection (4) that it intends to appeal, it must at the same time inform the court of the offence or offences which are the subject of the appeal.
Where—that other ruling, or those other rulings, are also to be treated as the subject of the appeal.
the ruling is a ruling that there is no case to answer, and
the prosecution, at the same time that it informs the court in accordance with subsection (4) that it intends to appeal, nominates one or more other rulings which have been made by a judge in relation to the trial on indictment at an applicable time and which relate to the offence or offences which are the subject of the appeal,
The prosecution may not inform the court in accordance with subsection (4) that it intends to appeal, unless, at or before that time, it informs the court that it agrees that, in respect of the offence or each offence which is the subject of the appeal, the defendant in relation to that offence should be acquitted of that offence if either of the conditions mentioned in subsection (9) is fulfilled.
Those conditions are—
that leave to appeal to the Court of Appeal is not obtained, and
that the appeal is abandoned before it is determined by the Court of Appeal.
If the prosecution informs the court in accordance with subsection (4) that it intends to appeal, the ruling mentioned in subsection (1) is to continue to have no effect in relation to the offence or offences which are the subject of the appeal whilst the appeal is pursued.
If and to the extent that a ruling has no effect in accordance with this section—
any consequences of the ruling are also to have no effect,
the judge may not take any steps in consequence of the ruling, and
if he does so, any such steps are also to have no effect.
Where the prosecution has informed the court of its agreement under subsection (8) and either of the conditions mentioned in subsection (9) is fulfilled, the judge or the Court of Appeal must order that the defendant in relation to the offence or each offence concerned be acquitted of that offence.
In this section “applicable time”, in relation to a trial on indictment, means any time (whether before or after the commencement of the trial) before the time when the judge starts his summing-up to the jury.
The reference in subsection (13) to the time when the judge starts his summing-up to the jury includes the time when the judge would start his summing-up to the jury but for the making of an order under Part 7.
Where the prosecution informs the court in accordance with section 58(4) that it intends to appeal, the judge must decide whether or not the appeal should be expedited.
If the judge decides that the appeal should be expedited, he may order an adjournment.
If the judge decides that the appeal should not be expedited, he may—
order an adjournment, or
discharge the jury (if one has been sworn).
If he decides that the appeal should be expedited, he or the Court of Appeal may subsequently reverse that decision and, if it is reversed, the judge may act as mentioned in subsection (3)(a) or (b).
This section applies where the prosecution informs the court in accordance with section 58(4) that it intends to appeal.
Proceedings may be continued in respect of any offence which is not the subject of the appeal.
On an appeal under section 58, the Court of Appeal may confirm, reverse or vary any ruling to which the appeal relates.
Subsections (3) to (5) apply where the appeal relates to a single ruling.
Where the Court of Appeal confirms the ruling, it must, in respect of the offence or each offence which is the subject of the appeal, order that the defendant in relation to that offence be acquitted of that offence.
Where the Court of Appeal reverses or varies the ruling, it must, in respect of the offence or each offence which is the subject of the appeal, do any of the following—
order that proceedings for that offence may be resumed in the Crown Court,
order that a fresh trial may take place in the Crown Court for that offence,
order that the defendant in relation to that offence be acquitted of that offence.
But the Court of Appeal may not make an order under subsection (4)(c) in respect of an offence unless it considers that the defendant could not receive a fair trial if an order were made under subsection (4)(a) or (b).
Subsections (7) and (8) apply where the appeal relates to a ruling that there is no case to answer and one or more other rulings.
Where the Court of Appeal confirms the ruling that there is no case to answer, it must, in respect of the offence or each offence which is the subject of the appeal, order that the defendant in relation to that offence be acquitted of that offence.
Where the Court of Appeal reverses or varies the ruling that there is no case to answer, it must in respect of the offence or each offence which is the subject of the appeal, make any of the orders mentioned in subsection (4)(a) to (c) (but subject to subsection (5)).
Right of appeal in respect of evidentiary rulings
“evidentiary ruling” means a ruling which relates to the admissibility or exclusion of any prosecution evidence,“qualifying offence” means an offence described in Part 1 of Schedule 4.
The prosecution may, in accordance with this section and section 63, appeal in respect of—
a single qualifying evidentiary ruling, or
two or more qualifying evidentiary rulings.
A “qualifying evidentiary ruling” is an evidentiary ruling of a judge in relation to a trial on indictment which is made at any time (whether before or after the commencement of the trial) before the opening of the case for the defence.
The prosecution may not appeal in respect of a single qualifying evidentiary ruling unless the ruling relates to one or more qualifying offences (whether or not it relates to any other offence).
The prosecution may not appeal in respect of two or more qualifying evidentiary rulings unless each ruling relates to one or more qualifying offences (whether or not it relates to any other offence).
If the prosecution intends to appeal under this section, it must before the opening of the case for the defence inform the court—
of its intention to do so, and
of the ruling or rulings to which the appeal relates.
In respect of the ruling, or each ruling, to which the appeal relates—
the qualifying offence, or at least one of the qualifying offences, to which the ruling relates must be the subject of the appeal, and
any other offence to which the ruling relates may, but need not, be the subject of the appeal.
The prosecution must, at the same time that it informs the court in accordance with subsection (5), inform the court of the offence or offences which are the subject of the appeal.
For the purposes of this section, the case for the defence opens when, after the conclusion of the prosecution evidence, the earliest of the following events occurs—
evidence begins to be adduced by or on behalf of a defendant,
it is indicated to the court that no evidence will be adduced by or on behalf of a defendant,
a defendant’s case is opened, as permitted by section 2 of the Criminal Procedure Act 1865 (c. 18).
In this section—
The Secretary of State may by order amend that Part by doing any one or more of the following—
adding a description of offence,
removing a description of offence for the time being included,
modifying a description of offence for the time being included.
Nothing in this section affects the right of the prosecution to appeal in respect of an evidentiary ruling under section 58.
Leave to appeal may not be given in relation to an appeal under section 62 unless the judge or, as the case may be, the Court of Appeal is satisfied that the relevant condition is fulfilled.
In relation to an appeal in respect of a single qualifying evidentiary ruling, the relevant condition is that the ruling significantly weakens the prosecution’s case in relation to the offence or offences which are the subject of the appeal.
In relation to an appeal in respect of two or more qualifying evidentiary rulings, the relevant condition is that the rulings taken together significantly weaken the prosecution’s case in relation to the offence or offences which are the subject of the appeal.
Where the prosecution informs the court in accordance with section 62(5), the judge must decide whether or not the appeal should be expedited.
If the judge decides that the appeal should be expedited, he may order an adjournment.
If the judge decides that the appeal should not be expedited, he may—
order an adjournment, or
discharge the jury (if one has been sworn).
If he decides that the appeal should be expedited, he or the Court of Appeal may subsequently reverse that decision and, if it is reversed, the judge may act as mentioned in subsection (3)(a) or (b).
This section applies where the prosecution informs the court in accordance with section 62(5).
Proceedings may be continued in respect of any offence which is not the subject of the appeal.
On an appeal under section 62, the Court of Appeal may confirm, reverse or vary any ruling to which the appeal relates.
In addition, the Court of Appeal must, in respect of the offence or each offence which is the subject of the appeal, do any of the following—
order that proceedings for that offence be resumed in the Crown Court,
order that a fresh trial may take place in the Crown Court for that offence,
order that the defendant in relation to that offence be acquitted of that offence.
But no order may be made under subsection (2)(c) in respect of an offence unless the prosecution has indicated that it does not intend to continue with the prosecution of that offence.
Miscellaneous and supplemental
The Court of Appeal may not reverse a ruling on an appeal under this Part unless it is satisfied—
that the ruling was wrong in law,
that the ruling involved an error of law or principle, or
that the ruling was a ruling that it was not reasonable for the judge to have made.
In section 33(1) of the 1968 Act (right of appeal to House of Lords) after “this Act” there is inserted “ or Part 9 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”.
In section 36 of the 1968 Act (bail on appeal by defendant) after “under” there is inserted “ Part 9 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 or ”.
In this Part “the 1968 Act” means the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19).
The Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 (c. 23) is amended as follows.
In section 16(4A) (defence costs on an appeal under section 9(11) of Criminal Justice Act 1987 may be met out of central funds) after “hearings)” there is inserted “ or under Part 9 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”.
In section 18 (award of costs against accused) after subsection (2) there is inserted—
In subsection (6) after “subsection (2)” there is inserted “ or (2A) ”.
Section 22 of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 (c. 23) (power of Secretary of State to set time limits in relation to preliminary stages of criminal proceedings) is amended as follows.
After subsection (6A) there is inserted—
“programme service” has the same meaning as in the Broadcasting Act 1990 (c. 42),“publication” includes any speech, writing, relevant programme or other communication in whatever form, which is addressed to the public at large or any section of the public (and for this purpose every relevant programme is to be taken to be so addressed), but does not include an indictment or other document prepared for use in particular legal proceedings,“relevant time” means a time when events giving rise to the charges to which the proceedings relate are alleged to have occurred,“relevant programme” means a programme included in a programme service.
Except as provided by this section no publication shall include a report of—
an appeal under this Part,
an appeal under Part 2 of the 1968 Act in relation to an appeal under this Part, or
an application for leave to appeal in relation to an appeal mentioned in paragraph (b) or (c).
The judge may order that subsection (1) is not to apply, or is not to apply to a specified extent, to a report of—
an application to the judge for leave to appeal to the Court of Appeal under this Part.
The Court of Appeal may order that subsection (1) is not to apply, or is not to apply to a specified extent, to a report of—
an appeal to the Court of Appeal under this Part,
an application to that Court for leave to appeal to it under this Part, or
an application to that Court for leave to appeal to the Supreme Court under Part 2 of the 1968 Act.
The Supreme Court may order that subsection (1) is not to apply, or is not to apply to a specified extent, to a report of—
an appeal to the Supreme Court under Part 2 of the 1968 Act, or
an application to the Supreme Court for leave to appeal to it under Part 2 of that Act.
Where there is only one defendant and he objects to the making of an order under subsection (2), (3) or (4)—
the judge, the Court of Appeal or the Supreme Court is to make the order if (and only if) satisfied, after considering the representations of the defendant, that it is in the interests of justice to do so, and
the order (if made) is not to apply to the extent that a report deals with any such objection or representations.
Where there are two or more defendants and one or more of them object to the making of an order under subsection (2), (3) or (4)—
the judge, the Court of Appeal or the Supreme Court is to make the order if (and only if) satisfied, after considering the representations of each of the defendants, that it is in the interests of justice to do so, and
the order (if made) is not to apply to the extent that a report deals with any such objection or representations.
Subsection (1) does not apply to the inclusion in a publication of a report of—at the conclusion of the trial of the defendant or the last of the defendants to be tried.
an appeal under this Part,
an appeal under Part 2 of the 1968 Act in relation to an appeal under this Part, or
an application for leave to appeal in relation to an appeal mentioned in paragraph (b) or (c),
Subsection (1) does not apply to a report which contains only one or more of the following matters—
the identity of the court and the name of the judge,
the names, ages, home addresses and occupations of the defendant or defendants and witnesses,
the offence or offences, or a summary of them, with which the defendant or defendants are charged,
the names of counsel and solicitors in the proceedings,
where the proceedings are adjourned, the date and place to which they are adjourned,
any arrangements as to bail,
whether, for the purposes of the proceedings, representation was provided to the defendant or any of the defendants under Part 1 of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012.
The addresses that may be included in a report by virtue of subsection (8) are addresses—
at any relevant time, and
at the time of their inclusion in the publication.
Nothing in this section affects any prohibition or restriction by virtue of any other enactment on the inclusion of any matter in a publication.
In this section—
This section applies if a publication includes a report in contravention of section 71.
Where the publication is a newspaper or periodical, any proprietor, editor or publisher of the newspaper or periodical is guilty of an offence.
Where the publication is a relevant programme—is guilty of an offence.
any body corporate or Scottish partnership engaged in providing the programme service in which the programme is included, and
any person having functions in relation to the programme corresponding to those of an editor of a newspaper,
In the case of any other publication, any person publishing it is guilty of an offence.
If an offence under this section committed by a body corporate is proved—an officer, the officer as well as the body corporate is guilty of the offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
to have been committed with the consent or connivance of, or
to be attributable to any neglect on the part of,
In subsection (5), “officer” means a director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body, or a person purporting to act in any such capacity.
If the affairs of a body corporate are managed by its members, “director” in subsection (6) means a member of that body.
Where an offence under this section is committed by a Scottish partnership and is proved to have been committed with the consent or connivance of a partner, he as well as the partnership shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
A person guilty of an offence under this section is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale.
Proceedings for an offence under this section may not be instituted—
in England and Wales otherwise than by or with the consent of the Attorney General, or
in Northern Ireland otherwise than by or with the consent of—
before the relevant date, the Attorney General for Northern Ireland, or
on or after the relevant date, the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland.
In subsection (10) “the relevant date” means the date on which section 22(1) of the Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 2002 (c. 26) comes into force.
Rules of court may make such provision as appears to the authority making them to be necessary or expedient for the purposes of this Part.
Without limiting subsection (1), rules of court may in particular make provision—
for time limits which are to apply in connection with any provisions of this Part,
as to procedures to be applied in connection with this Part,
enabling a single judge of the Court of Appeal to give leave to appeal under this Part or to exercise the power of the Court of Appeal under section 58(12).
Nothing in this section is to be taken as affecting the generality of any enactment conferring powers to make rules of court.
“programme service” has the meaning given by section 71(11),“publication” has the meaning given by section 71(11),“qualifying evidentiary ruling” is to be construed in accordance with section 62(2),“the relevant condition” is to be construed in accordance with section 63(2) and (3),“relevant programme” has the meaning given by section 71(11),“ruling” includes a decision, determination, direction, finding, notice, order, refusal, rejection or requirement,“the 1968 Act” means the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19).
In this Part—
Any reference in this Part (other than section 73(2)(c)) to a judge is a reference to a judge of the Crown Court.
Where a ruling relates to two or more offences but not all of those offences are the subject of an appeal under this Part, nothing in this Part is to be regarded as affecting the ruling so far as it relates to any offence which is not the subject of the appeal.
Where two or more defendants are charged jointly with the same offence, the provisions of this Part are to apply as if the offence, so far as relating to each defendant, were a separate offence (so that, for example, any reference in this Part to a ruling which relates to one or more offences includes a ruling which relates to one or more of those separate offences).
Subject to rules of court made under section 53(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54) (power by rules to distribute business of Court of Appeal between its civil and criminal divisions)—
the jurisdiction of the Court of Appeal under this Part is to be exercised by the criminal division of that court, and
references in this Part to the Court of Appeal are to be construed as references to that division.
In its application to a trial on indictment in respect of which an order under section 17(2) of the Domestic Violence, Crime and Victims Act 2004 has been made, this Part is to have effect with such modifications as the Secretary of State may by order specify.
Retrial for serious offences
Cases that may be retried
This Part applies where a person has been acquitted of a qualifying offence in proceedings—
on indictment in England and Wales,
on appeal against a conviction, verdict or finding in proceedings on indictment in England and Wales, or
on appeal from a decision on such an appeal.
A person acquitted of an offence in proceedings mentioned in subsection (1) is treated for the purposes of that subsection as also acquitted of any qualifying offence of which he could have been convicted in the proceedings because of the first-mentioned offence being charged in the indictment, except an offence—
of which he has been convicted,
of which he has been found not guilty by reason of insanity, or
in respect of which, in proceedings where he has been found to be under a disability (as defined by section 4 of the Criminal Procedure (Insanity) Act 1964 (c. 84)), a finding has been made that he did the act or made the omission charged against him.
This Part also applies where a person has been acquitted, in proceedings elsewhere than in the United Kingdom, of an offence under the law of the place where the proceedings were held, if the commission of the offence as alleged would have amounted to or included the commission (in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) of a qualifying offence.
Conduct punishable under the law in force elsewhere than in the United Kingdom is an offence under that law for the purposes of subsection (4), however it is described in that law.
This Part applies whether the acquittal was before or after the passing of this Act.
References in this Part to acquittal are to acquittal in circumstances within subsection (1) or (4).
In this Part “qualifying offence” means an offence listed in Part 1 of Schedule 5.
Application for retrial
A prosecutor may apply to the Court of Appeal for an order—
quashing a person’s acquittal in proceedings within section 75(1), and
ordering him to be retried for the qualifying offence.
A prosecutor may apply to the Court of Appeal, in the case of a person acquitted elsewhere than in the United Kingdom, for—
a determination whether the acquittal is a bar to the person being tried in England and Wales for the qualifying offence, and
if it is, an order that the acquittal is not to be a bar.
A prosecutor may make an application under subsection (1) or (2) only with the written consent of the Director of Public Prosecutions.
The Director of Public Prosecutions may give his consent only if satisfied that—
there is evidence as respects which the requirements of section 78 appear to be met,
it is in the public interest for the application to proceed, and
any trial pursuant to an order on the application would not be inconsistent with obligations of the United Kingdom under Article 31 or 34 of the Treaty on European Union (as it had effect before 1 December 2009) or Article 82, 83 or 85 of the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union relating to the principle of ne bis in idem.
Not more than one application may be made under subsection (1) or (2) in relation to an acquittal.
On an application under section 76(1), the Court of Appeal—
otherwise, must dismiss the application.
Subsections (3) and (4) apply to an application under section 76(2).
Where the Court of Appeal determines that the acquittal is a bar to the person being tried for the qualifying offence, the court—
otherwise, must make a declaration to the effect that the acquittal is a bar to the person being tried for the offence.
Where the Court of Appeal determines that the acquittal is not a bar to the person being tried for the qualifying offence, it must make a declaration to that effect.
The requirements of this section are met if there is new and compelling evidence against the acquitted person in relation to the qualifying offence.
Evidence is new if it was not adduced in the proceedings in which the person was acquitted (nor, if those were appeal proceedings, in earlier proceedings to which the appeal related).
Evidence is compelling if—
it is reliable,
it is substantial, and
in the context of the outstanding issues, it appears highly probative of the case against the acquitted person.
The outstanding issues are the issues in dispute in the proceedings in which the person was acquitted and, if those were appeal proceedings, any other issues remaining in dispute from earlier proceedings to which the appeal related.
For the purposes of this section, it is irrelevant whether any evidence would have been admissible in earlier proceedings against the acquitted person.
The requirements of this section are met if in all the circumstances it is in the interests of justice for the court to make the order under section 77.
That question is to be determined having regard in particular to—
whether existing circumstances make a fair trial unlikely;
for the purposes of that question and otherwise, the length of time since the qualifying offence was allegedly committed;
whether it is likely that the new evidence would have been adduced in the earlier proceedings against the acquitted person but for a failure by an officer or by a prosecutor to act with due diligence or expedition;
whether, since those proceedings or, if later, since the commencement of this Part, any officer or prosecutor has failed to act with due diligence or expedition.
In subsection (2) references to an officer or prosecutor include references to a person charged with corresponding duties under the law in force elsewhere than in England and Wales.
Where the earlier prosecution was conducted by a person other than a prosecutor, subsection (2)(c) applies in relation to that person as well as in relation to a prosecutor.
Within two days beginning with the day on which any such notice is given, notice of the application must be served by the prosecutor on the person to whom the application relates, charging him with the offence to which it relates or, if he has been charged with it in accordance with section 87(4), stating that he has been so charged.
Subsection (2) applies whether the person to whom the application relates is in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, but the Court of Appeal may, on application by the prosecutor, extend the time for service under that subsection if it considers it necessary to do so because of that person’s absence from the United Kingdom.
The Court of Appeal must consider the application at a hearing.
The person to whom the application relates—
is entitled to be present at the hearing, although he may be in custody, unless he is in custody elsewhere than in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, and
is entitled to be represented at the hearing, whether he is present or not.
For the purposes of the application, the Court of Appeal may, if it thinks it necessary or expedient in the interests of justice—
order the production of any document, exhibit or other thing, the production of which appears to the court to be necessary for the determination of the application, and
order any witness who would be a compellable witness in proceedings pursuant to an order or declaration made on the application to attend for examination and be examined before the court.
The Court of Appeal may at one hearing consider more than one application (whether or not relating to the same person), but only if the offences concerned could be tried on the same indictment.
The Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19) is amended as follows.
In section 33 (right of appeal to Supreme Court), after subsection (1A) there is inserted—
At the end of that section there is inserted—
In section 34(2) (extension of time for leave to appeal), after “defendant” there is inserted “ or, in the case of an appeal under section 33(1B), by the prosecutor ”.
“programme service” has the same meaning as in the Broadcasting Act 1990 (c. 42),“publication” includes any speech, writing, relevant programme or other communication in whatever form, which is addressed to the public at large or any section of the public (and for this purpose every relevant programme is to be taken to be so addressed), but does not include an indictment or other document prepared for use in particular legal proceedings,“relevant programme” means a programme included in a programme service.
Where it appears to the Court of Appeal that the inclusion of any matter in a publication would give rise to a substantial risk of prejudice to the administration of justice in a retrial, the court may order that the matter is not to be included in any publication while the order has effect.
In subsection (1) “retrial” means the trial of an acquitted person for a qualifying offence pursuant to any order made or that may be made under section 77.
The court may make an order under this section only if it appears to it necessary in the interests of justice to do so.
An order under this section may apply to a matter which has been included in a publication published before the order takes effect, but such an order—
applies only to the later inclusion of the matter in a publication (whether directly or by inclusion of the earlier publication), and
does not otherwise affect the earlier publication.
After notice of an application has been given under section 80(1) relating to the acquitted person and the qualifying offence, the court may make an order under this section only—
of its own motion, or
on the application of the Director of Public Prosecutions.
Before such notice has been given, an order under this section—
may be made only on the application of the Director of Public Prosecutions, and
may not be made unless, since the acquittal concerned, an investigation of the commission by the acquitted person of the qualifying offence has been commenced by officers.
The court may at any time, of its own motion or on an application made by the Director of Public Prosecutions or the acquitted person, vary or revoke an order under this section.
Any order made under this section before notice of an application has been given under section 80(1) relating to the acquitted person and the qualifying offence must specify the time when it ceases to have effect.
An order under this section which is made or has effect after such notice has been given ceases to have effect, unless it specifies an earlier time—
when there is no longer any step that could be taken which would lead to the acquitted person being tried pursuant to an order made on the application, or
if he is tried pursuant to such an order, at the conclusion of the trial.
Nothing in this section affects any prohibition or restriction by virtue of any other enactment on the inclusion of any matter in a publication or any power, under an enactment or otherwise, to impose such a prohibition or restriction.
In this section—
This section applies if—
an order under section 82 is made, whether in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, and
while the order has effect, any matter is included in a publication, in any part of the United Kingdom, in contravention of the order.
Where the publication is a newspaper or periodical, any proprietor, editor or publisher of the newspaper or periodical is guilty of an offence.
Where the publication is a relevant programme—is guilty of an offence.
any body corporate or Scottish partnership engaged in providing the programme service in which the programme is included, and
any person having functions in relation to the programme corresponding to those of an editor of a newspaper,
In the case of any other publication, any person publishing it is guilty of an offence.
If an offence under this section committed by a body corporate is proved—an officer, the officer as well as the body corporate is guilty of the offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
to have been committed with the consent or connivance of, or
to be attributable to any neglect on the part of,
In subsection (5), “officer” means a director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body, or a person purporting to act in any such capacity.
If the affairs of a body corporate are managed by its members, “director” in subsection (6) means a member of that body.
Where an offence under this section is committed by a Scottish partnership and is proved to have been committed with the consent or connivance of a partner, he as well as the partnership shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
A person guilty of an offence under this section is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale.
Proceedings for an offence under this section may not be instituted—
in England and Wales otherwise than by or with the consent of the Attorney General, or
in Northern Ireland otherwise than by or with the consent of—
before the relevant date, the Attorney General for Northern Ireland, or
on or after the relevant date, the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland.
In subsection (10) “the relevant date” means the date on which section 22(1) of the Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 2002 (c. 26) comes into force.
Retrial
Where a person—the trial must be on an indictment preferred by direction of the Court of Appeal.
is tried pursuant to an order under section 77(1), or
is tried on indictment pursuant to an order under section 77(3),
After the end of 2 months after the date of the order, the person may not be arraigned on an indictment preferred in pursuance of such a direction unless the Court of Appeal gives leave.
The Court of Appeal must not give leave unless satisfied that—
the prosecutor has acted with due expedition, and
there is a good and sufficient cause for trial despite the lapse of time since the order under section 77.
Where the person may not be arraigned without leave, he may apply to the Court of Appeal to set aside the order and—
for any direction required for restoring an earlier judgment and verdict of acquittal of the qualifying offence, or
in the case of a person acquitted elsewhere than in the United Kingdom, for a declaration to the effect that the acquittal is a bar to his being tried for the qualifying offence.
An indictment under subsection (1) may relate to more than one offence, or more than one person, and may relate to an offence which, or a person who, is not the subject of an order or declaration under section 77.
all the parties to the trial agree otherwise,
section 116 applies, or
the witness is unavailable to give evidence, otherwise than as mentioned in subsection (2) of that section, and section 114(1)(d) applies.
Investigations
This section applies to the investigation of the commission of a qualifying offence by a person—
acquitted in proceedings within section 75(1) of the qualifying offence, or
acquitted elsewhere than in the United Kingdom of an offence the commission of which as alleged would have amounted to or included the commission (in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) of the qualifying offence.
Subject to section 86, an officer may not do anything within subsection (3) for the purposes of such an investigation unless the Director of Public Prosecutions—
has certified that in his opinion the acquittal would not be a bar to the trial of the acquitted person in England and Wales for the qualifying offence, or
has given his written consent to the investigation (whether before or after the start of the investigation).
The officer may not, either with or without the consent of the acquitted person—
arrest or question him,
search him or premises owned or occupied by him,
search a vehicle owned by him or anything in or on such a vehicle,
seize anything in his possession, or
take his fingerprints or take a sample from him.
The Director of Public Prosecutions may only give his consent on a written application, and such an application may be made only by an officer who—
if he is an officer of the metropolitan police force or the City of London police force, is of the rank of commander or above, or
in any other case, is of the rank of assistant chief constable or above.
An officer may make an application under subsection (4) only if—
he has reasonable grounds for believing that such new evidence is likely to be obtained as a result of the investigation.
The Director of Public Prosecutions may not give his consent unless satisfied that—
there is, or there is likely as a result of the investigation to be, sufficient new evidence to warrant the conduct of the investigation, and
it is in the public interest for the investigation to proceed.
In giving his consent, the Director of Public Prosecutions may recommend that the investigation be conducted otherwise than by officers of a specified police force or specified team of customs and excise officers.
Section 85 does not prevent an officer from taking any action for the purposes of an investigation if—
the action is necessary as a matter of urgency to prevent the investigation being substantially and irrevocably prejudiced,
the requirements of subsection (2) are met, and
either—
the action is authorised under subsection (3), or
the requirements of subsection (5) are met.
The requirements of this subsection are met if—
there has been no undue delay in applying for consent under section 85(2),
that consent has not been refused, and
taking into account the urgency of the situation, it is not reasonably practicable to obtain that consent before taking the action.
An officer of the rank of superintendent or above may authorise the action if—
he has reasonable grounds for believing that such new evidence is likely to be obtained as a result of the investigation.
An authorisation under subsection (3) must—
if reasonably practicable, be given in writing;
otherwise, be recorded in writing by the officer giving it as soon as is reasonably practicable.
The requirements of this subsection are met if—
there has been no undue delay in applying for authorisation under subsection (3),
that authorisation has not been refused, and
taking into account the urgency of the situation, it is not reasonably practicable to obtain that authorisation before taking the action.
Where the requirements of subsection (5) are met, the action is nevertheless to be treated as having been unlawful unless, as soon as reasonably practicable after the action is taken, an officer of the rank of superintendent or above certifies in writing that he is satisfied that, when the action was taken—
the officer who took the action had reasonable grounds for believing that such new evidence was likely to be obtained as a result of the investigation.
Section 85(4) has effect as if for the words from “an officer who” to the end there were substituted the Ombudsman.
Section 85(5) has effect as if for “An officer” there were substituted The Ombudsman.
Section 85(7) does not apply.
Section 86(3) has effect as if for “An officer of the rank of superintendent or above” there were substituted A senior officer of the Ombudsman.
Section 86(6) has effect as if for “an officer of the rank of superintendent or above” there were substituted a senior officer of the Ombudsman.
References to a senior officer of the Ombudsman are to an officer of the rank of senior investigating officer or above.
Arrest, custody and bail
Where section 85 applies to the investigation of the commission of an offence by any person and no certification has been given under subsection (2) of that section—
that person may not be arrested for that offence except under a warrant so issued.
Part 4 of the 1984 Act (detention) applies as follows where a person—
is arrested for an offence under a warrant issued in accordance with subsection (1)(a), or
having been so arrested, is subsequently treated under section 34(7) of that Act as arrested for that offence.
For the purposes of that Part there is sufficient evidence to charge the person with the offence for which he has been arrested if, and only if, an officer of the rank of superintendent or above (who has not been directly involved in the investigation) is of the opinion that the evidence available or known to him is sufficient for the case to be referred to a prosecutor to consider whether consent should be sought for an application in respect of that person under section 76.
For the purposes of that Part it is the duty of the custody officer at each police station where the person is detained to make available or known to an officer at that police station of the rank of superintendent or above any evidence which it appears to him may be relevant to an application under section 76(1) or (2) in respect of the offence for which the person has been arrested, and to do so as soon as practicable—
after the evidence becomes available or known to him, or
if later, after he forms that view.
Section 37 of that Act (including any provision of that section as applied by section 40(8) of that Act) has effect subject to the following modifications—
in subsection (1)—
for “determine whether he has before him” there is substituted “ request an officer of the rank of superintendent or above (who has not been directly involved in the investigation) to determine, in accordance with section 87(4) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003, whether there is ”;
for “him to do so” there is substituted “ that determination to be made ”;
in subsection (2)—
for the words from “custody officer determines” to “before him” there is substituted “ officer determines that there is not such sufficient evidence ”;
the word “custody” is omitted from the second place where it occurs;
in subsection (3)—
the word “custody” is omitted;
after “may” there is inserted “ direct the custody officer to ”;
in subsection (7) for the words from “the custody officer” to the end of that subsection there is substituted “ an officer of the rank of superintendent or above (who has not been directly involved in the investigation) determines, in accordance with section 87(4) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003, that there is sufficient evidence to charge the person arrested with the offence for which he was arrested, the person arrested shall be charged. ”;
subsections (7A), (7B) and (8) do not apply;
after subsection (10) there is inserted—.
Section 40 of that Act has effect as if in subsections (8) and (9) of that section after “(6)” there were inserted “ and (10A) ”.
Section 42 of that Act has effect as if in subsection (1) of that section for the words from “who” to “detained” there were substituted “ (who has not been directly involved in the investigation) ”.
In relation to a person charged in accordance with section 87(4)—
section 38 of the 1984 Act (including any provision of that section as applied by section 40(10) of that Act) has effect as if, in subsection (1), for “either on bail or without bail” there were substituted “ on bail ”,
section 47(3) of that Act does not apply and references in section 38 of that Act to bail are references to bail subject to a duty to appear before the Crown Court at such place as the custody officer may appoint and at such time, not later than 24 hours after the person is released, as that officer may appoint, and
section 43B of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43) does not apply.
Where such a person is, after being charged—he must be brought before the Crown Court as soon as practicable and, in any event, not more than 24 hours after he is charged, and section 46 of the 1984 Act does not apply.
kept in police detention, or
detained by a local authority in pursuance of arrangements made under section 38(6) of the 1984 Act,
For the purpose of calculating the period referred to in subsection (1) or (2), the following are to be disregarded—
Saturday,
Sunday,
Christmas Day,
Good Friday, and
any day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 (c. 80) in the part of the United Kingdom where the person is to appear before the Crown Court as mentioned in subsection (1) or, where subsection (2) applies, is for the time being detained.
Where a person appears or is brought before the Crown Court in accordance with subsection (1) or (2), the Crown Court may either—
grant bail for the person to appear, if notice of an application is served on him under section 80(2), before the Court of Appeal at the hearing of that application, or
remand the person in custody to be brought before the Crown Court under section 89(2).
If the Crown Court grants bail under subsection (4), it may revoke bail and remand the person in custody as referred to in subsection (4)(b).
In subsection (7) the “relevant period”, in relation to a person granted bail or remanded in custody under subsection (4), means—
the period of 42 days beginning with the day on which he is granted bail or remanded in custody under that subsection, or
that period as extended or further extended under subsection (8).
if on bail subject to a duty to appear as mentioned in subsection (4)(a), ceases to be subject to that duty and to any conditions of that bail, and
if in custody on remand under subsection (4)(b) or (5), must be released immediately without bail.
The Crown Court may, on the application of a prosecutor, extend or further extend the period mentioned in subsection (6)(a) until a specified date, but only if satisfied that—
the need for the extension is due to some good and sufficient cause, and
the prosecutor has acted with all due diligence and expedition.
This section applies where notice of an application is given under section 80(1).
If the person to whom the application relates is in custody under section 88(4)(b) or (5), he must be brought before the Crown Court as soon as practicable and, in any event, within 48 hours after the notice is given.
If that person is not in custody under section 88(4)(b) or (5), the Crown Court may, on application by the prosecutor—and a warrant under paragraph (b) may be issued at any time even though a summons has previously been issued.
issue a summons requiring the person to appear before the Court of Appeal at the hearing of the application, or
issue a warrant for the person’s arrest,
Where a summons is issued under subsection (3)(a), the time and place at which the person must appear may be specified either—
in the summons, or
in a subsequent direction of the Crown Court.
The time or place specified may be varied from time to time by a direction of the Crown Court.
A person arrested under a warrant under subsection (3)(b) must be brought before the Crown Court as soon as practicable and in any event within 48 hours after his arrest, and section 81(5) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54) does not apply.
If a person is brought before the Crown Court under subsection (2) or (6) the court must either—
remand him in custody to be brought before the Court of Appeal at the hearing of the application, or
grant bail for him to appear before the Court of Appeal at the hearing.
If bail is granted under subsection (7)(b), the Crown Court may revoke the bail and remand the person in custody as referred to in subsection (7)(a).
For the purpose of calculating the period referred to in subsection (2) or (6), the following are to be disregarded—
Saturday,
Sunday,
Christmas Day,
Good Friday, and
any day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 (c. 80) in the part of the United Kingdom where the person is for the time being detained.
remand the person to whom the application relates on bail, or
remand him in custody.
At a hearing at which the Court of Appeal—the court may make such order as it sees fit for the custody or bail of the acquitted person pending trial pursuant to the order or declaration, or pending determination of the appeal.
makes an order under section 77,
makes a declaration under subsection (4) of that section, or
dismisses the application or makes a declaration under subsection (3) of that section, if it also gives the prosecutor leave to appeal against its decision or the prosecutor gives notice that he intends to apply for such leave,
For the purpose of subsection (2), the determination of an appeal is pending—
until any application for leave to appeal is disposed of, or the time within which it must be made expires;
if leave to appeal is granted, until the appeal is disposed of.
Section 4 of the Bail Act 1976 (c. 63) applies in relation to the grant of bail under this section as if in subsection (2) the reference to the Crown Court included a reference to the Court of Appeal.
The court may at any time, as it sees fit—
revoke bail granted under this section and remand the person in custody, or
vary an order under subsection (2).
Where—the court must order him to surrender himself forthwith to the custody of the court.
a court revokes a person’s bail under this Part, and
that person is not before the court when his bail is revoked,
Where a person surrenders himself into the custody of the court in compliance with an order under subsection (1), the court must remand him in custody.
A person who has been ordered to surrender to custody under subsection (1) may be arrested without a warrant by an officer if he fails without reasonable cause to surrender to custody in accordance with the order.
A person arrested under subsection (3) must be brought as soon as practicable, and, in any event, not more than 24 hours after he is arrested, before the court and the court must remand him in custody.
For the purpose of calculating the period referred to in subsection (4), the following are to be disregarded—
Saturday,
Sunday,
Christmas Day,
Good Friday,
any day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 (c. 80) in the part of the United Kingdom where the person is for the time being detained.
Part 10: supplementary
Section 1(7) of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 (c. 23) (DPP’s functions exercisable by Crown Prosecutor) does not apply to the provisions of this Part other than section 85(2)(a).
In the absence of the Director of Public Prosecutions, his functions under those provisions may be exercised by a person authorised by him.
An authorisation under subsection (2)—
may relate to a specified person or to persons of a specified description, and
may be general or relate to a specified function or specified circumstances.
Rules of court may make such provision as appears to the authority making them to be necessary or expedient for the purposes of this Part.
Nothing in this section is to be taken as affecting the generality of any enactment conferring power to make rules of court.
Section 323 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (provision in consequence of criminal justice enactments) applies in relation to an enactment contained in this Part so far as relating to matters not specified in subsection (2) of section 324 of that Act as it applies in relation to a criminal justice enactment (within the meaning given by that section).
The power under section 323 of that Act to make provision equivalent to that made in relation to qualifying offences by an enactment contained in this Part (with or without modifications) includes power to make such provision in relation to such service offences as the Secretary of State thinks fit.
In subsection (2) “service offence” has the same meaning as in the Armed Forces Act 2006.
“the 1984 Act” means the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60),“acquittal” and related expressions are to be read in accordance with section 75(7),“customs and excise officer” means an officer as defined by section 1(1) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2), or a person to whom section 8(2) of that Act applies,“new evidence” is to be read in accordance with section 78(2),“officer”, except in section 83, means an officer of a police force or a customs and excise officer,“police force” has the meaning given by section 3(3) of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 (c. 23),“prosecutor” means an individual or body charged with duties to conduct criminal prosecutions,“qualifying offence” has the meaning given by section 75(8).
In this Part—
Subject to rules of court made under section 53(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54) (power by rules to distribute business of Court of Appeal between its civil and criminal divisions)—
the jurisdiction of the Court of Appeal under this Part is to be exercised by the criminal division of that court, and
references in this Part to the Court of Appeal are to be construed as references to that division.
References in this Part to an officer of a specified rank or above are, in the case of a customs and excise officer, references to an officer of such description as—
appears to the Commissioners of Customs and Excise to comprise officers of equivalent rank or above, and
is specified by the Commissioners for the purposes of the provision concerned.
In its application to Northern Ireland this Part is to have effect subject to the modifications in this section.
For section 75(2)(c) substitute—
In section 75(8) for “Part 1” substitute “ Part 2 ”.
In section 81(1) for “Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19)” substitute “ Criminal Appeal (Northern Ireland) Act 1980 (c. 47) ”.
In section 81(2)—
for “33” substitute “ 31 ”, and
for “An” substitute “ Subject to the provisions of this Part of this Act, an ”.
In section 81(4)—
for “34(2)” substitute “ 32(2) ”, and
for “33(1B)” substitute “ 31(1B) ”.
In section 82(10) after “enactment” in each place insert “ (including any provision of Northern Ireland legislation) ”.
Section 84(6) has effect—
as if any reference to a provision of Part 11 were a reference to any corresponding provision contained in an Order in Council to which section 334(1) applies, at any time when such corresponding provision is in force;
at any other time, with the omission of paragraphs (b) and (c).
After section 84(6) insert—
In section 87—
in subsection (3), for “Part 4 of the 1984 Act” substitute “ Part 5 of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S. I. 1989/1341 (N. I. 12)) (“the 1989 Order”) ”,
in paragraph (b) of that subsection, for “section 34(7) of that Act” substitute “ Article 35(8) of that Order ”,
in subsection (6)—
for the words from the beginning to “40(8) of that Act)” substitute “ Article 38 of that Order (including any provision of that Article as applied by Article 41(8) of that Order) ”,
for “subsection” in each place substitute “paragraph ,
in paragraph (e), for “subsections (7A), (7B) and (8)” substitute “ paragraph (8) ”, and
in paragraph (f), in the inserted paragraph (10A) omit “above”,
for subsection (7) substitute—,
in subsection (8)—
for “Section 42 of that Act” substitute “ Article 43 of that Order ”, and
for “subsection (1) of that section” substitute “ paragraph (1) of that Article ”.
For section 88(1) substitute—
In section 88(2)—
for paragraph (b) substitute—, and
for “section 46 of the 1984 Act” substitute “ Article 47 of the 1989 Order ”.
In section 89(6) for “section 81(5) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54)” substitute “ section 51(8) of the Judicature (Northern Ireland) Act 1978 (c. 23) ”.
For section 90(4) substitute—
Until the coming into force of section 36 of that Act of 2002 the reference to that section in subsection (17) is to be read as a reference to Article 4(8) of the Prosecution of Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 1972 (S.I. 1972/538 (N.I. 1)).
In section 93(2) for “the Criminal Appeal Rules and the Crown Court Rules” substitute “ rules under section 55 of the Judicature (Northern Ireland) Act 1978 and Crown Court Rules ”.
In section 93(3) after “enactment” insert “ (including any provision of Northern Ireland legislation) ”.
In section 95(1) for the definition of “police force” substitute—.
Omit section 95(2).
Subject to the provisions of this Part, the Secretary of State may make an order containing provision, in relation to proceedings in England and Wales before the Court of Appeal under this Part, which corresponds to any provision, in relation to appeals or other proceedings before that court, which is contained in the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19). . . (subject to any specified modifications).
Subject to the provisions of this Part, the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland may make an order containing provision, in relation to proceedings in Northern Ireland before the Court of Appeal under this Part, which corresponds to any provision, in relation to appeals or other proceedings before that court, which is contained in the Criminal Appeal (Northern Ireland) Act 1980(subject to any specified modifications).
Evidence
Introductory
References in this Chapter to evidence of a person’s “bad character” are to evidence of, or of a disposition towards, misconduct on his part, other than evidence which—
has to do with the alleged facts of the offence with which the defendant is charged, or
is evidence of misconduct in connection with the investigation or prosecution of that offence.
The common law rules governing the admissibility of evidence of bad character in criminal proceedings are abolished.
Subsection (1) is subject to section 118(1) in so far as it preserves the rule under which in criminal proceedings a person’s reputation is admissible for the purposes of proving his bad character.
Persons other than defendants
In criminal proceedings evidence of the bad character of a person other than the defendant is admissible if and only if—
it is important explanatory evidence,
it has substantial probative value in relation to a matter which—or
is a matter in issue in the proceedings, and
is of substantial importance in the context of the case as a whole,
all parties to the proceedings agree to the evidence being admissible.
For the purposes of subsection (1)(a) evidence is important explanatory evidence if—
without it, the court or jury would find it impossible or difficult properly to understand other evidence in the case, and
its value for understanding the case as a whole is substantial.
In assessing the probative value of evidence for the purposes of subsection (1)(b) the court must have regard to the following factors (and to any others it considers relevant)—
the nature and number of the events, or other things, to which the evidence relates;
when those events or things are alleged to have happened or existed;
where—the nature and extent of the similarities and the dissimilarities between each of the alleged instances of misconduct;
the evidence is evidence of a person’s misconduct, and
it is suggested that the evidence has probative value by reason of similarity between that misconduct and other alleged misconduct,
where—the extent to which the evidence shows or tends to show that the same person was responsible each time.
the evidence is evidence of a person’s misconduct,
it is suggested that that person is also responsible for the misconduct charged, and
the identity of the person responsible for the misconduct charged is disputed,
Except where subsection (1)(c) applies, evidence of the bad character of a person other than the defendant must not be given without leave of the court.
Defendants
In criminal proceedings evidence of the defendant’s bad character is admissible if, but only if—
all parties to the proceedings agree to the evidence being admissible,
the evidence is adduced by the defendant himself or is given in answer to a question asked by him in cross-examination and intended to elicit it,
it is important explanatory evidence,
it is relevant to an important matter in issue between the defendant and the prosecution,
it has substantial probative value in relation to an important matter in issue between the defendant and a co-defendant,
it is evidence to correct a false impression given by the defendant, or
the defendant has made an attack on another person’s character.
The court must not admit evidence under subsection (1)(d) or (g) if, on an application by the defendant to exclude it, it appears to the court that the admission of the evidence would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings that the court ought not to admit it.
On an application to exclude evidence under subsection (3) the court must have regard, in particular, to the length of time between the matters to which that evidence relates and the matters which form the subject of the offence charged.
For the purposes of section 101(1)(c) evidence is important explanatory evidence if—
without it, the court or jury would find it impossible or difficult properly to understand other evidence in the case, and
its value for understanding the case as a whole is substantial.
For the purposes of section 101(1)(d) the matters in issue between the defendant and the prosecution include—
the question whether the defendant has a propensity to commit offences of the kind with which he is charged, except where his having such a propensity makes it no more likely that he is guilty of the offence;
the question whether the defendant has a propensity to be untruthful, except where it is not suggested that the defendant’s case is untruthful in any respect.
Where subsection (1)(a) applies, a defendant’s propensity to commit offences of the kind with which he is charged may (without prejudice to any other way of doing so) be established by evidence that he has been convicted of—
an offence of the same description as the one with which he is charged, or
an offence of the same category as the one with which he is charged.
Subsection (2) does not apply in the case of a particular defendant if the court is satisfied, by reason of the length of time since the conviction or for any other reason, that it would be unjust for it to apply in his case.
For the purposes of subsection (2)—
two offences are of the same description as each other if the statement of the offence in a written charge or indictment would, in each case, be in the same terms;
two offences are of the same category as each other if they belong to the same category of offences prescribed for the purposes of this section by an order made by the Secretary of State.
A category prescribed by an order under subsection (4)(b) must consist of offences of the same type.
Only prosecution evidence is admissible under section 101(1)(d).
Where—subsection (8) applies for the purpose of determining if the previous offence and the current offence are of the same description or category.
a defendant has been convicted of an offence under the law of any country outside England and Wales (“the previous offence”), and
the previous offence would constitute an offence under the law of England and Wales (“the corresponding offence”) if it were done in England and Wales at the time of the trial for the offence with which the defendant is now charged (“the current offence”),
For the purposes of subsection (2)—
the previous offence is of the same description as the current offence if the corresponding offence is of that same description, as set out in subsection (4)(a);
the previous offence is of the same category as the current offence if the current offence and the corresponding offence belong to the same category of offences prescribed as mentioned in subsection (4)(b).
For the purposes of subsection (10) “foreign service offence” means an offence which—
was the subject of proceedings under the service law of a country outside the United Kingdom, and
would constitute an offence under the law of England and Wales or a service offence (“the corresponding domestic offence”) if it were done in England and Wales by a member of Her Majesty's forces at the time of the trial for the offence with which the defendant is now charged (“the current offence”).
Where a defendant has been found guilty of a foreign service offence (“the previous service offence”), for the purposes of subsection (2)—
the previous service offence is an offence of the same description as the current offence if the corresponding domestic offence is of that same description, as set out in subsection (4)(a);
the previous service offence is an offence of the same category as the current offence if the current offence and the corresponding domestic offence belong to the same category of offences prescribed as mentioned in subsection (4)(b).
In this section—“Her Majesty's forces” has the same meaning as in the Armed Forces Act 2006;“service law”, in relation to a country outside the United Kingdom, means the law governing all or any of the naval, military or air forces of that country.
Evidence which is relevant to the question whether the defendant has a propensity to be untruthful is admissible on that basis under section 101(1)(e) only if the nature or conduct of his defence is such as to undermine the co-defendant’s defence.
Only evidence—is admissible under section 101(1)(e).
which is to be (or has been) adduced by the co-defendant, or
which a witness is to be invited to give (or has given) in cross-examination by the co-defendant,
For the purposes of section 101(1)(f)—
the defendant gives a false impression if he is responsible for the making of an express or implied assertion which is apt to give the court or jury a false or misleading impression about the defendant;
evidence to correct such an impression is evidence which has probative value in correcting it.
A defendant is treated as being responsible for the making of an assertion if—
the assertion is made by the defendant in the proceedings (whether or not in evidence given by him),
the assertion was made by the defendant—and evidence of the assertion is given in the proceedings,
on being questioned under caution, before charge, about the offence with which he is charged, or
on being charged with the offence or officially informed that he might be prosecuted for it,
the assertion is made by a witness called by the defendant,
the assertion is made by any witness in cross-examination in response to a question asked by the defendant that is intended to elicit it, or is likely to do so, or
the assertion was made by any person out of court, and the defendant adduces evidence of it in the proceedings.
A defendant who would otherwise be treated as responsible for the making of an assertion shall not be so treated if, or to the extent that, he withdraws it or disassociates himself from it.
Where it appears to the court that a defendant, by means of his conduct (other than the giving of evidence) in the proceedings, is seeking to give the court or jury an impression about himself that is false or misleading, the court may if it appears just to do so treat the defendant as being responsible for the making of an assertion which is apt to give that impression.
In subsection (4) “conduct” includes appearance or dress.
Evidence is admissible under section 101(1)(f) only if it goes no further than is necessary to correct the false impression.
Only prosecution evidence is admissible under section 101(1)(f).
For the purposes of section 101(1)(g) a defendant makes an attack on another person’s character if—
he adduces evidence attacking the other person’s character,
he (or any legal representative appointed under section 38(4) of the Youth Justice and Criminal Evidence Act 1999 (c. 23) to cross-examine a witness in his interests) asks questions in cross-examination that are intended to elicit such evidence, or are likely to do so, or
evidence is given of an imputation about the other person made by the defendant—
on being questioned under caution, before charge, about the offence with which he is charged, or
on being charged with the offence or officially informed that he might be prosecuted for it.
In subsection (1) “evidence attacking the other person’s character” means evidence to the effect that the other person—and “imputation about the other person” means an assertion to that effect.
has committed an offence (whether a different offence from the one with which the defendant is charged or the same one), or
has behaved, or is disposed to behave, in a reprehensible way;
Only prosecution evidence is admissible under section 101(1)(g).
If on a defendant’s trial before a judge and jury for an offence—the court must either direct the jury to acquit the defendant of the offence or, if it considers that there ought to be a retrial, discharge the jury.
evidence of his bad character has been admitted under any of paragraphs (c) to (g) of section 101(1), and
the court is satisfied at any time after the close of the case for the prosecution that—
the evidence is contaminated, and
the contamination is such that, considering the importance of the evidence to the case against the defendant, his conviction of the offence would be unsafe,
Where—the defendant may not be found guilty of that other offence if the court is satisfied as mentioned in subsection (1)(b) in respect of it.
a jury is directed under subsection (1) to acquit a defendant of an offence, and
the circumstances are such that, apart from this subsection, the defendant could if acquitted of that offence be found guilty of another offence,
If—
a jury is required to determine under section 4A(2) of the Criminal Procedure (Insanity) Act 1964 (c. 84) whether a person charged on an indictment with an offence did the act or made the omission charged,
evidence of the person’s bad character has been admitted under any of paragraphs (c) to (g) of section 101(1), and
the court is satisfied at any time after the close of the case for the prosecution that—the court must either direct the jury to acquit the defendant of the offence or, if it considers that there ought to be a rehearing, discharge the jury.
the evidence is contaminated, and
the contamination is such that, considering the importance of the evidence to the case against the person, a finding that he did the act or made the omission would be unsafe,
This section does not prejudice any other power a court may have to direct a jury to acquit a person of an offence or to discharge a jury.
For the purposes of this section a person’s evidence is contaminated where—the evidence is false or misleading in any respect, or is different from what it would otherwise have been.
as a result of an agreement or understanding between the person and one or more others, or
as a result of the person being aware of anything alleged by one or more others whose evidence may be, or has been, given in the proceedings,
Section 16(2) and (3) of the Children and Young Persons Act 1963 (c. 37) (offences committed by person under 14 disregarded for purposes of evidence relating to previous convictions) shall cease to have effect.
In proceedings for an offence committed or alleged to have been committed by the defendant when aged 21 or over, evidence of his conviction for an offence when under the age of 14 is not admissible unless—
both of the offences are triable only on indictment, and
the court is satisfied that the interests of justice require the evidence to be admissible.
Subsection (2B) applies where—
the defendant has been convicted of an offence under the law of any country outside England and Wales (“the previous offence”), and
the previous offence would constitute an offence under the law of England and Wales (“the corresponding offence”) if it were done in England and Wales at the time of the proceedings for the offence with which the defendant is now charged.
For the purposes of subsection (2), the previous offence is to be regarded as triable only on indictment if the corresponding offence is so triable.
Subsection (2) applies in addition to section 101.
General
Subject to subsection (2), a reference in this Chapter to the relevance or probative value of evidence is a reference to its relevance or probative value on the assumption that it is true.
In assessing the relevance or probative value of an item of evidence for any purpose of this Chapter, a court need not assume that the evidence is true if it appears, on the basis of any material before the court (including any evidence it decides to hear on the matter), that no court or jury could reasonably find it to be true.
Where the court makes a relevant ruling—
it must state in open court (but in the absence of the jury, if there is one) its reasons for the ruling;
if it is a magistrates' court, it must cause the ruling and the reasons for it to be entered in the register of the court’s proceedings.
In this section “relevant ruling” means—
a ruling on whether an item of evidence is evidence of a person’s bad character;
a ruling under section 107.
Rules of court may make such provision as appears to the appropriate authority to be necessary or expedient for the purposes of this Act; and the appropriate authority is the authority entitled to make the rules.
The rules may, and, where the party in question is the prosecution, must, contain provision requiring a party who—to serve on the defendant such notice, and such particulars of or relating to the evidence, as may be prescribed.
proposes to adduce evidence of a defendant’s bad character, or
proposes to cross-examine a witness with a view to eliciting such evidence,
The rules may provide that the court or the defendant may, in such circumstances as may be prescribed, dispense with a requirement imposed by virtue of subsection (2).
In considering the exercise of its powers with respect to costs, the court may take into account any failure by a party to comply with a requirement imposed by virtue of subsection (2) and not dispensed with by virtue of subsection (3).
The rules may—
limit the application of any provision of the rules to prescribed circumstances;
subject any provision of the rules to prescribed exceptions;
make different provision for different cases or circumstances.
Nothing in this section prejudices the generality of any enactment conferring power to make rules of court; and no particular provision of this section prejudices any general provision of it.
In this section “prescribed” means prescribed by rules of court.
“bad character” is to be read in accordance with section 98;“criminal proceedings” means criminal proceedings in relation to which the strict rules of evidence apply;“defendant”, in relation to criminal proceedings, means a person charged with an offence in those proceedings; and “co-defendant”, in relation to a defendant, means a person charged with an offence in the same proceedings;“important matter” means a matter of substantial importance in the context of the case as a whole;“misconduct” means the commission of an offence or other reprehensible behaviour;“offence” includes a service offence;“probative value”, and “relevant” (in relation to an item of evidence), are to be read in accordance with section 109;“prosecution evidence” means evidence which is to be (or has been) adduced by the prosecution, or which a witness is to be invited to give (or has given) in cross-examination by the prosecution;“service offence” has the same meaning as in the Armed Forces Act 2006;“written charge” has the same meaning as in section 29 and also includes an information.
In this Chapter—
Where a defendant is charged with two or more offences in the same criminal proceedings, this Chapter (except section 101(3)) has effect as if each offence were charged in separate proceedings; and references to the offence with which the defendant is charged are to be read accordingly.
Nothing in this Chapter affects the exclusion of evidence—
under the rule in section 3 of the Criminal Procedure Act 1865 (c. 18) against a party impeaching the credit of his own witness by general evidence of bad character,
under section 41 of the Youth Justice and Criminal Evidence Act 1999 (c. 23) (restriction on evidence or questions about complainant’s sexual history), or
on grounds other than the fact that it is evidence of a person’s bad character.
Schedule 6 (armed forces) has effect.
Hearsay: main provisions
In criminal proceedings a statement not made in oral evidence in the proceedings is admissible as evidence of any matter stated if, but only if—
any provision of this Chapter or any other statutory provision makes it admissible,
any rule of law preserved by section 118 makes it admissible,
all parties to the proceedings agree to it being admissible, or
the court is satisfied that it is in the interests of justice for it to be admissible.
In deciding whether a statement not made in oral evidence should be admitted under subsection (1)(d), the court must have regard to the following factors (and to any others it considers relevant)—
how much probative value the statement has (assuming it to be true) in relation to a matter in issue in the proceedings, or how valuable it is for the understanding of other evidence in the case;
what other evidence has been, or can be, given on the matter or evidence mentioned in paragraph (a);
how important the matter or evidence mentioned in paragraph (a) is in the context of the case as a whole;
the circumstances in which the statement was made;
how reliable the maker of the statement appears to be;
how reliable the evidence of the making of the statement appears to be;
whether oral evidence of the matter stated can be given and, if not, why it cannot;
the amount of difficulty involved in challenging the statement;
the extent to which that difficulty would be likely to prejudice the party facing it.
Nothing in this Chapter affects the exclusion of evidence of a statement on grounds other than the fact that it is a statement not made in oral evidence in the proceedings.
In this Chapter references to a statement or to a matter stated are to be read as follows.
A statement is any representation of fact or opinion made by a person by whatever means; and it includes a representation made in a sketch, photofit or other pictorial form.
A matter stated is one to which this Chapter applies if (and only if) the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the person making the statement appears to the court to have been—
to cause another person to believe the matter, or
to cause another person to act or a machine to operate on the basis that the matter is as stated.
Principal categories of admissibility
In criminal proceedings a statement not made in oral evidence in the proceedings is admissible as evidence of any matter stated if—
oral evidence given in the proceedings by the person who made the statement would be admissible as evidence of that matter,
the person who made the statement (the relevant person) is identified to the court’s satisfaction, and
any of the five conditions mentioned in subsection (2) is satisfied.
The conditions are—
that the relevant person is dead;
that the relevant person is unfit to be a witness because of his bodily or mental condition;
that the relevant person is outside the United Kingdom and it is not reasonably practicable to secure his attendance;
that the relevant person cannot be found although such steps as it is reasonably practicable to take to find him have been taken;
that through fear the relevant person does not give (or does not continue to give) oral evidence in the proceedings, either at all or in connection with the subject matter of the statement, and the court gives leave for the statement to be given in evidence.
For the purposes of subsection (2)(e) “fear” is to be widely construed and (for example) includes fear of the death or injury of another person or of financial loss.
Leave may be given under subsection (2)(e) only if the court considers that the statement ought to be admitted in the interests of justice, having regard—
to the statement’s contents,
to any risk that its admission or exclusion will result in unfairness to any party to the proceedings (and in particular to how difficult it will be to challenge the statement if the relevant person does not give oral evidence),
in appropriate cases, to the fact that a direction under section 19 of the Youth Justice and Criminal Evidence Act 1999 (c. 23) (special measures for the giving of evidence by fearful witnesses etc) could be made in relation to the relevant person, and
to any other relevant circumstances.
A condition set out in any paragraph of subsection (2) which is in fact satisfied is to be treated as not satisfied if it is shown that the circumstances described in that paragraph are caused—in order to prevent the relevant person giving oral evidence in the proceedings (whether at all or in connection with the subject matter of the statement).
by the person in support of whose case it is sought to give the statement in evidence, or
by a person acting on his behalf,
In criminal proceedings a statement contained in a document is admissible as evidence of any matter stated if—
oral evidence given in the proceedings would be admissible as evidence of that matter,
the requirements of subsection (2) are satisfied, and
the requirements of subsection (5) are satisfied, in a case where subsection (4) requires them to be.
The requirements of this subsection are satisfied if—
the document or the part containing the statement was created or received by a person in the course of a trade, business, profession or other occupation, or as the holder of a paid or unpaid office,
the person who supplied the information contained in the statement (the relevant person) had or may reasonably be supposed to have had personal knowledge of the matters dealt with, and
each person (if any) through whom the information was supplied from the relevant person to the person mentioned in paragraph (a) received the information in the course of a trade, business, profession or other occupation, or as the holder of a paid or unpaid office.
The persons mentioned in paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (2) may be the same person.
The additional requirements of subsection (5) must be satisfied if the statement—(all of which relate to overseas evidence)
was prepared for the purposes of pending or contemplated criminal proceedings, or for a criminal investigation, but
was not obtained pursuant to—
a request under section 7 of the Crime (International Co-operation) Act 2003,
an order under paragraph 6 of Schedule 13 to the Criminal Justice Act 1988,...
..., or
an overseas production order under the Crime (Overseas Production Orders) Act 2019,
The requirements of this subsection are satisfied if—
any of the five conditions mentioned in section 116(2) is satisfied (absence of relevant person etc), or
the relevant person cannot reasonably be expected to have any recollection of the matters dealt with in the statement (having regard to the length of time since he supplied the information and all other circumstances).
A statement is not admissible under this section if the court makes a direction to that effect under subsection (7).
The court may make a direction under this subsection if satisfied that the statement’s reliability as evidence for the purpose for which it is tendered is doubtful in view of—
its contents,
the source of the information contained in it,
the way in which or the circumstances in which the information was supplied or received, or
the way in which or the circumstances in which the document concerned was created or received.
The following rules of law are preserved. Public information etc 1 Any rule of law under which in criminal proceedings—Reputation as to character 2 Any rule of law under which in criminal proceedings evidence of a person’s reputation is admissible for the purpose of proving his good or bad character. Note The rule is preserved only so far as it allows the court to treat such evidence as proving the matter concerned. Reputation or family tradition 3 Any rule of law under which in criminal proceedings evidence of reputation or family tradition is admissible for the purpose of proving or disproving—Note The rule is preserved only so far as it allows the court to treat such evidence as proving or disproving the matter concerned. Res gestae 4 Any rule of law under which in criminal proceedings a statement is admissible as evidence of any matter stated if—Confessions etc 5 Any rule of law relating to the admissibility of confessions or mixed statements in criminal proceedings. Admissions by agents etc 6 Any rule of law under which in criminal proceedings—Common enterprise 7 Any rule of law under which in criminal proceedings a statement made by a party to a common enterprise is admissible against another party to the enterprise as evidence of any matter stated. Expert evidence 8 Any rule of law under which in criminal proceedings an expert witness may draw on the body of expertise relevant to his field.
published works dealing with matters of a public nature (such as histories, scientific works, dictionaries and maps) are admissible as evidence of facts of a public nature stated in them,
public documents (such as public registers, and returns made under public authority with respect to matters of public interest) are admissible as evidence of facts stated in them,
records (such as the records of certain courts, treaties, Crown grants, pardons and commissions) are admissible as evidence of facts stated in them, or
evidence relating to a person’s age or date or place of birth may be given by a person without personal knowledge of the matter.
pedigree or the existence of a marriage,
the existence of any public or general right, or
the identity of any person or thing.
the statement was made by a person so emotionally overpowered by an event that the possibility of concoction or distortion can be disregarded,
the statement accompanied an act which can be properly evaluated as evidence only if considered in conjunction with the statement, or
the statement relates to a physical sensation or a mental state (such as intention or emotion).
an admission made by an agent of a defendant is admissible against the defendant as evidence of any matter stated, or
a statement made by a person to whom a defendant refers a person for information is admissible against the defendant as evidence of any matter stated.
With the exception of the rules preserved by this section, the common law rules governing the admissibility of hearsay evidence in criminal proceedings are abolished.
If in criminal proceedings a person gives oral evidence and—the statement is admissible as evidence of any matter stated of which oral evidence by him would be admissible.
he admits making a previous inconsistent statement, or
a previous inconsistent statement made by him is proved by virtue of section 3, 4 or 5 of the Criminal Procedure Act 1865 (c. 18),
If in criminal proceedings evidence of an inconsistent statement by any person is given under section 124(2)(c), the statement is admissible as evidence of any matter stated in it of which oral evidence by that person would be admissible.
This section applies where a person (the witness) is called to give evidence in criminal proceedings.
If a previous statement by the witness is admitted as evidence to rebut a suggestion that his oral evidence has been fabricated, that statement is admissible as evidence of any matter stated of which oral evidence by the witness would be admissible.
A statement made by the witness in a document—is admissible as evidence of any matter stated of which oral evidence by him would be admissible.
which is used by him to refresh his memory while giving evidence,
on which he is cross-examined, and
which as a consequence is received in evidence in the proceedings,
A previous statement by the witness is admissible as evidence of any matter stated of which oral evidence by him would be admissible, if—
any of the following three conditions is satisfied, and
while giving evidence the witness indicates that to the best of his belief he made the statement, and that to the best of his belief it states the truth.
The first condition is that the statement identifies or describes a person, object or place.
The second condition is that the statement was made by the witness when the matters stated were fresh in his memory but he does not remember them, and cannot reasonably be expected to remember them, well enough to give oral evidence of them in the proceedings.
The third condition is that—
the witness claims to be a person against whom an offence has been committed,
the offence is one to which the proceedings relate,
the statement consists of a complaint made by the witness (whether to a person in authority or not) about conduct which would, if proved, constitute the offence or part of the offence,
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the complaint was not made as a result of a threat or a promise, and
before the statement is adduced the witness gives oral evidence in connection with its subject matter.
For the purposes of subsection (7) the fact that the complaint was elicited (for example, by a leading question) is irrelevant unless a threat or a promise was involved.
Supplementary
A hearsay statement is not admissible to prove the fact that an earlier hearsay statement was made unless—
all parties to the proceedings so agree, or
the court is satisfied that the value of the evidence in question, taking into account how reliable the statements appear to be, is so high that the interests of justice require the later statement to be admissible for that purpose.
In this section “hearsay statement” means a statement, not made in oral evidence, that is relied on as evidence of a matter stated in it.
This section applies if on a trial before a judge and jury for an offence—
the document or a copy of it is produced as an exhibit.
The exhibit must not accompany the jury when they retire to consider their verdict unless—
the court considers it appropriate, or
all the parties to the proceedings agree that it should accompany the jury.
did not have the required capability at that time, or
cannot be identified but cannot reasonably be assumed to have had the required capability at that time.
For the purposes of this section a person has the required capability if he is capable of—
understanding questions put to him about the matters stated, and
giving answers to such questions which can be understood.
Where by reason of this section there is an issue as to whether a person had the required capability when he made a statement—
proceedings held for the determination of the issue must take place in the absence of the jury (if there is one);
in determining the issue the court may receive expert evidence and evidence from any person to whom the statement in question was made;
the burden of proof on the issue lies on the party seeking to adduce the statement, and the standard of proof is the balance of probabilities.
This section applies if in criminal proceedings—
a statement not made in oral evidence in the proceedings is admitted as evidence of a matter stated, and
the maker of the statement does not give oral evidence in connection with the subject matter of the statement.
In such a case—
any evidence which (if he had given such evidence) would have been admissible as relevant to his credibility as a witness is so admissible in the proceedings;
evidence may with the court’s leave be given of any matter which (if he had given such evidence) could have been put to him in cross-examination as relevant to his credibility as a witness but of which evidence could not have been adduced by the cross-examining party;
evidence tending to prove that he made (at whatever time) any other statement inconsistent with the statement admitted as evidence is admissible for the purpose of showing that he contradicted himself.
If as a result of evidence admitted under this section an allegation is made against the maker of a statement, the court may permit a party to lead additional evidence of such description as the court may specify for the purposes of denying or answering the allegation.
In the case of a statement in a document which is admitted as evidence under section 117 each person who, in order for the statement to be admissible, must have supplied or received the information concerned or created or received the document or part concerned is to be treated as the maker of the statement for the purposes of subsections (1) to (3) above.
If on a defendant’s trial before a judge and jury for an offence the court is satisfied at any time after the close of the case for the prosecution that—the court must either direct the jury to acquit the defendant of the offence or, if it considers that there ought to be a retrial, discharge the jury.
the case against the defendant is based wholly or partly on a statement not made in oral evidence in the proceedings, and
the evidence provided by the statement is so unconvincing that, considering its importance to the case against the defendant, his conviction of the offence would be unsafe,
Where—the defendant may not be found guilty of that other offence if the court is satisfied as mentioned in subsection (1) in respect of it.
a jury is directed under subsection (1) to acquit a defendant of an offence, and
the circumstances are such that, apart from this subsection, the defendant could if acquitted of that offence be found guilty of another offence,
If—the court must either direct the jury to acquit the defendant of the offence or, if it considers that there ought to be a rehearing, discharge the jury.
a jury is required to determine under section 4A(2) of the Criminal Procedure (Insanity) Act 1964 (c. 84) whether a person charged on an indictment with an offence did the act or made the omission charged, and
the court is satisfied as mentioned in subsection (1) above at any time after the close of the case for the prosecution that—
the case against the defendant is based wholly or partly on a statement not made in oral evidence in the proceedings, and
the evidence provided by the statement is so unconvincing that, considering its importance to the case against the person, a finding that he did the act or made the omission would be unsafe,
This section does not prejudice any other power a court may have to direct a jury to acquit a person of an offence or to discharge a jury.
In criminal proceedings the court may refuse to admit a statement as evidence of a matter stated if—
the statement was made otherwise than in oral evidence in the proceedings, and
the court is satisfied that the case for excluding the statement, taking account of the danger that to admit it would result in undue waste of time, substantially outweighs the case for admitting it, taking account of the value of the evidence.
Nothing in this Chapter prejudices—
any power of a court to exclude evidence under section 78 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) (exclusion of unfair evidence), or
any other power of a court to exclude evidence at its discretion (whether by preventing questions from being put or otherwise).
Miscellaneous
This section applies if—
a statement has been prepared for the purposes of criminal proceedings,
the person who prepared the statement had or may reasonably be supposed to have had personal knowledge of the matters stated,
notice is given under the appropriate rules that another person (the expert) will in evidence given in the proceedings orally or under section 9 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967 (c. 80) base an opinion or inference on the statement, and
the notice gives the name of the person who prepared the statement and the nature of the matters stated.
In evidence given in the proceedings the expert may base an opinion or inference on the statement.
If evidence based on the statement is given under subsection (2) the statement is to be treated as evidence of what it states.
This section does not apply if the court, on an application by a party to the proceedings, orders that it is not in the interests of justice that it should apply.
The matters to be considered by the court in deciding whether to make an order under subsection (4) include—
the expense of calling as a witness the person who prepared the statement;
whether relevant evidence could be given by that person which could not be given by the expert;
whether that person can reasonably be expected to remember the matters stated well enough to give oral evidence of them.
Subsections (1) to (5) apply to a statement prepared for the purposes of a criminal investigation as they apply to a statement prepared for the purposes of criminal proceedings, and in such a case references to the proceedings are to criminal proceedings arising from the investigation.
The appropriate rules are Criminal Procedure Rules made by virtue of—
. . . section 81 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (advance notice of expert evidence in Crown Court), or
. . . section 20(3) of the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 (c. 25) (advance notice of expert evidence in magistrates' courts).
In the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) the following section is inserted after section 76—
Subject to subsection (1), nothing in this Chapter makes a confession by a defendant admissible if it would not be admissible under section 76 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60).
In subsection (2) “confession” has the meaning given by section 82 of that Act.
Where a representation of any fact—the representation is not admissible in criminal proceedings as evidence of the fact unless it is proved that the information was accurate.
is made otherwise than by a person, but
depends for its accuracy on information supplied (directly or indirectly) by a person,
Subsection (1) does not affect the operation of the presumption that a mechanical device has been properly set or calibrated.
In Schedule 3 to the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (c. 37), sub-paragraph (4) of paragraph 5 is omitted (power of the court to overrule an objection to a deposition being read as evidence by virtue of that paragraph).
For paragraphs 1 and 1A of Schedule 2 to the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19) (oral evidence and use of transcripts etc at retrials under that Act) there is substituted—
General
Rules of court may make such provision as appears to the appropriate authority to be necessary or expedient for the purposes of this Chapter; and the appropriate authority is the authority entitled to make the rules.
The rules may make provision about the procedure to be followed and other conditions to be fulfilled by a party proposing to tender a statement in evidence under any provision of this Chapter.
The rules may require a party proposing to tender the evidence to serve on each party to the proceedings such notice, and such particulars of or relating to the evidence, as may be prescribed.
The rules may provide that the evidence is to be treated as admissible by agreement of the parties if—
a notice has been served in accordance with provision made under subsection (3), and
no counter-notice in the prescribed form objecting to the admission of the evidence has been served by a party.
If a party proposing to tender evidence fails to comply with a prescribed requirement applicable to it—
the evidence is not admissible except with the court’s leave;
where leave is given the court or jury may draw such inferences from the failure as appear proper;
the failure may be taken into account by the court in considering the exercise of its powers with respect to costs.
In considering whether or how to exercise any of its powers under subsection (5) the court shall have regard to whether there is any justification for the failure to comply with the requirement.
A person shall not be convicted of an offence solely on an inference drawn under subsection (5)(b).
Rules under this section may—
limit the application of any provision of the rules to prescribed circumstances;
subject any provision of the rules to prescribed exceptions;
make different provision for different cases or circumstances.
Nothing in this section prejudices the generality of any enactment conferring power to make rules of court; and no particular provision of this section prejudices any general provision of it.
In this section “prescribed” means prescribed by rules of court
Where a statement in a document is admissible as evidence in criminal proceedings, the statement may be proved by producing either—authenticated in whatever way the court may approve.
the document, or
(whether or not the document exists) a copy of the document or of the material part of it,
“copy”, in relation to a document, means anything on to which information recorded in the document has been copied, by whatever means and whether directly or indirectly;“criminal proceedings” means criminal proceedings in relation to which the strict rules of evidence apply;“defendant”, in relation to criminal proceedings, means a person charged with an offence in those proceedings;“document” means anything in which information of any description is recorded;“oral evidence” includes evidence which, by reason of any disability, disorder or other impairment, a person called as a witness gives in writing or by signs or by way of any device;“statutory provision” means any provision contained in, or in an instrument made under, this or any other Act, including any Act passed after this Act.
In this Chapter—
Section 115 (statements and matters stated) contains other general interpretative provisions.
Where a defendant is charged with two or more offences in the same criminal proceedings, this Chapter has effect as if each offence were charged in separate proceedings.
Schedule 7 (hearsay evidence: armed forces) has effect.
In the Criminal Justice Act 1988 (c. 33), the following provisions (which are to some extent superseded by provisions of this Chapter) are repealed—
Part 2 and Schedule 2 (which relate to documentary evidence);
in Schedule 13, paragraphs 2 to 5 (which relate to documentary evidence in service courts etc).
This section applies where—
a person is called as a witness in proceedings for an offence triable only on indictment, or for a prescribed offence triable either way,
the person claims to have witnessed (whether visually or in any other way)—
events alleged by the prosecution to include conduct constituting the offence or part of the offence, or
events closely connected with such events,
he has previously given an account of the events in question (whether in response to questions asked or otherwise),
the account was given at a time when those events were fresh in the person’s memory (or would have been, assuming the truth of the claim mentioned in paragraph (b)),
a video recording was made of the account,
the court has made a direction that the recording should be admitted as evidence in chief of the witness, and the direction has not been rescinded, and
the recording is played in the proceedings in accordance with the direction.
If, or to the extent that, the witness in his oral evidence in the proceedings asserts the truth of the statements made by him in the recorded account, they shall be treated as if made by him in that evidence.
A direction under subsection (1)(f)—
may not be made in relation to a recorded account given by the defendant;
may be made only if it appears to the court that—
the witness’s recollection of the events in question is likely to have been significantly better when he gave the recorded account than it will be when he gives oral evidence in the proceedings, and
it is in the interests of justice for the recording to be admitted, having regard in particular to the matters mentioned in subsection (4).
Those matters are—
the interval between the time of the events in question and the time when the recorded account was made;
any other factors that might affect the reliability of what the witness said in that account;
the quality of the recording;
any views of the witness as to whether his evidence in chief should be given orally or by means of the recording.
For the purposes of subsection (2) it does not matter if the statements in the recorded account were not made on oath.
In this section “prescribed” means of a description specified in an order made by the Secretary of State.
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The reference in subsection (1)(f) of section 137 to the admission of a recording includes a reference to the admission of part of the recording; and references in that section and this one to the video recording or to the witness’s recorded account shall, where appropriate, be read accordingly.
In considering whether any part of a recording should be not admitted under section 137, the court must consider—
whether admitting that part would carry a risk of prejudice to the defendant, and
if so, whether the interests of justice nevertheless require it to be admitted in view of the desirability of showing the whole, or substantially the whole, of the recorded interview.
A court may not make a direction under section 137(1)(f) in relation to any proceedings unless—
the Secretary of State has notified the court that arrangements can be made, in the area in which it appears to the court that the proceedings will take place, for implementing directions under that section, and
the notice has not been withdrawn.
Nothing in section 137 affects the admissibility of any video recording which would be admissible apart from that section.
A person giving oral evidence in criminal proceedings about any matter may, at any stage in the course of doing so, refresh his memory of it from a document made or verified by him at an earlier time if—
he states in his oral evidence that the document records his recollection of the matter at that earlier time, and
his recollection of the matter is likely to have been significantly better at that time than it is at the time of his oral evidence.
Where—he may, at any stage in the course of giving his evidence, refresh his memory of the matter from that transcript.
a person giving oral evidence in criminal proceedings about any matter has previously given an oral account, of which a sound recording was made, and he states in that evidence that the account represented his recollection of the matter at that time,
his recollection of the matter is likely to have been significantly better at the time of the previous account than it is at the time of his oral evidence, and
a transcript has been made of the sound recording,
In this Chapter—“criminal proceedings” means criminal proceedings in relation to which the strict rules of evidence apply;“defendant”, in relation to criminal proceedings, means a person charged with an offence in those proceedings;“document” means anything in which information of any description is recorded, but not including any recording of sounds or moving images;“oral evidence” includes evidence which, by reason of any disability, disorder or other impairment, a person called as a witness gives in writing or by signs or by way of any device;“video recording” means any recording, on any medium, from which a moving image may by any means be produced, and includes the accompanying sound-track.
No provision of this Part has effect in relation to criminal proceedings begun before the commencement of that provision.
Sentencing
Matters to be taken into account in sentencing
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General restrictions on community sentences
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General restrictions on discretionary custodial sentences
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General limit on magistrates' court’s power to impose imprisonment
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Section 133 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (consecutive terms of imprisonment) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1), for “the words from “the longest” to “being imposed” there is substituted “ 65 weeks ”.
Subsection (2) is omitted.
In subsection (3) for “the preceding subsections” there is substituted “ subsection (1) above ”.
Procedural requirements for imposing community sentences and discretionary custodial sentences
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Disclosure of pre-sentence reports etc
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Pre-sentence drug testing
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Surcharges
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Fines
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Savings for power to mitigate etc
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Sentencing and allocation guidelines
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Duty of court to explain sentence
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Publication of information by Secretary of State
In section 95 of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 (c. 53) (information for financial and other purposes) in subsection (1) before the “or” at the end of paragraph (a) there is inserted—.
Interpretation of Chapter
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Prison sentences of less than 12 months
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Intermittent custody
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Further provision about custody plus orders and intermittent custody orders
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Suspended sentences
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Interpretation of Chapter
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Introductory
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Requirements available in case of all offenders
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Requirements available only in case of offenders aged under 25
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Electronic monitoring
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Provisions applying to relevant orders generally
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Powers of Secretary of State
The Secretary of State may continue to provide attendance centres.
In this Part “attendance centre” means a place at which offenders ... may be required to attend and be given under supervision appropriate occupation or instruction in pursuance of—
attendance centre requirements of relevant orders, or
attendance centre requirements of youth rehabilitation orders, within the meaning given by section 173 of the Sentencing Code,
attendance centre orders under section 60 of the PCC(S)A 2000,
default orders under section 300 of this Act, or
youth default orders under section 39 of the Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008.
For the purpose of providing attendance centres, the Secretary of State may make arrangements with any local authority or local policing body for the use of premises of that authority or body.
In this section “relevant order” means—
an order under section 177(1) (community order) or 189(1) (suspended sentence order);
a relevant order within the meaning given by section 397 of the Sentencing Code, made in respect of an offence of which the offender was convicted before the day on which paragraph 5 of Schedule 13 to the Police, Crime, Sentencing and Courts Act 2022 came into force.
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Interpretation
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Life sentences
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Extended sentences
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Schedule 18 (release of prisoners serving sentences of imprisonment or detention for public protection) shall have effect.
Supplementary
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Preliminary
In this Chapter “fixed-term prisoner” means—and “fixed-term sentence” means a sentence falling within paragraph (a) or (b).
a person serving a sentence of imprisonment for a determinate term, or
In this Chapter—
references to a sentence of imprisonment include such a sentence passed by a service court;
In this Chapter, unless the context otherwise requires, “prisoner” includes a person serving a sentence falling within subsection (1)(b); and “prison” includes any place where a person serving such a sentence is liable to be detained.
This section applies for the purposes of any public protection decision made by a decision-maker about a prisoner under a relevant provision of this Chapter.
A “public protection decision”, in relation to a prisoner, is a decision as to whether the decision-maker is satisfied that it is not necessary, or no longer necessary, for the protection of the public that the prisoner should be confined.
The decision-maker must not be so satisfied unless the decision-maker considers that there is no more than a minimal risk that, were the prisoner no longer confined, the prisoner would commit a further offence the commission of which would cause serious harm.
In making that assessment, the decision-maker must consider the risk that the prisoner would engage in conduct which would (or, if carried out in any particular part of the United Kingdom, would) constitute an offence specified in Schedule 18B.
When making a public protection decision about a prisoner, the following matters must be taken into account by the decision-maker—
the nature and seriousness of the offence in respect of which the relevant sentence was imposed;
the nature and seriousness of any other offence for which the prisoner has at any time been convicted;
the conduct of the prisoner while serving the relevant sentence (whether in prison or on licence);
the risk that the prisoner would commit a further offence (whether or not specified in Schedule 18B) if no longer confined;
the risk that, if released on licence, the prisoner would fail to comply with one or more licence conditions;
any evidence of the effectiveness in reducing the risk the prisoner poses to the public of any treatment, education or training the prisoner has received or participated in while serving the relevant sentence;
any submissions made by or on behalf of the prisoner or the Secretary of State (whether or not on a matter mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (f)).
When making a public protection decision about a prisoner, the decision-maker must in particular have regard to the protection of any victim of the prisoner.
For the purposes of subsection (6), a “victim” of a prisoner is a person who meets the definition of victim in section 1 of the Victims and Prisoners Act 2024 by reference to the conduct which constituted the offence for which the relevant sentence was imposed.
In subsections (5) and (7), “relevant sentence” means the sentence in respect of which the public protection decision is made.
This section does not limit the matters which the decision-maker must or may take into account when making a public protection decision.
Section 237B lists the “relevant provisions” of this Chapter under which a public protection decision may be made, and the purposes for which the decision is made.
The “decision-maker”, in relation to a public protection decision made under a relevant provision of this Chapter, is—
if the decision is made under section 256AZBC(1), the High Court;
in any other case, the Board.
Subsection (2) has effect in relation to a decision made by the Board—
under section 255B(4A) (automatic release) as if for the words “be confined” there were substituted“remain in prison until the end of the period mentioned in section 255B(1)(b)”;
under section 255C(4A) (prisoners excluded from automatic release) or 256A(4) (further review) as if for the words “be confined” there were substituted“remain in prison”.
The Secretary of State may by order amend Schedule 18B so as to—
specify a further offence, or
omit an offence for the time being specified.
In the following table—
the first column lists each provision of this Chapter which is a “relevant provision” under which a public protection decision may be made;
the second column lists, in relation to each relevant provision, the purposes for which the decision is made.
Power of court to recommend licence conditions
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The Parole Board is to continue to be, by that name, a body corporate and as such is—
to be constituted in accordance with this Chapter, and
to have the functions conferred on it by this Chapter in respect of fixed-term prisoners and by Chapter 2 of Part 2 of the Crime (Sentences) Act 1997 (c. 43) (in this Chapter referred to as “the 1997 Act”) in respect of life prisoners within the meaning of that Chapter.
It is the duty of the Board to advise the Secretary of State with respect to any matter referred to it by him which is to do with the early release or recall of prisoners.
The Board must, in dealing with cases as respects which it makes recommendations under this Chapter or under Chapter 2 of Part 2 of the 1997 Act, consider—and if in any particular case the Board thinks it necessary to interview the person to whom the case relates before reaching a decision, the Board may authorise one of its members to interview him and must consider the report of the interview made by that member.
any documents given to it by the Secretary of State, and
any other oral or written information obtained by it;
The Board must deal with cases as respects which it gives directions under this Chapter or under Chapter 2 of Part 2 of the 1997 Act on consideration of all such evidence as may be adduced before it.
Without prejudice to subsections (3) and (4), the Secretary of State may make rules with respect to the proceedings of the Board, including proceedings authorising cases to be dealt with by a prescribed number of its members or requiring cases to be dealt with at prescribed times.
Rules under subsection (5) may, in particular, make provision—and any such provision may relate to cases referred to the Board under this Chapter or under Chapter 2 of Part 2 of the 1997 Act.
requiring or permitting the Board to make provisional decisions;
about the circumstances—
in which the Board must or may reconsider such decisions;
in which such decisions become final;
conferring power on the Board to set aside a decision or direction that is within subsection (5B),
The following are within this subsection—
a direction given by the Board for, or a decision made by it not to direct, the release of a prisoner which the Board determines it would not have given or made but for an error of law or fact, or
a direction given by the Board for the release of a prisoner which the Board determines it would not have given if—
information that was not available to the Board when the direction was given had been so available, or
a change in circumstances relating to the prisoner that occurred after the direction was given had occurred before it was given.
Provision made by virtue of subsection (5A)(c)—
may not confer power on the Board to set aside a direction for the release of a prisoner at any time when the prisoner has already been released pursuant to that direction, but
may make provision for the suspension of any requirement under this Chapter or under Chapter 2 of Part 2 of the 1997 Act for the Secretary of State to give effect to a direction of the Board to release a prisoner, pending consideration by the Board as to whether to set it aside.
Rules under subsection (5) may also make provision for functions of the Board (including judicial functions) to be exercised by employees of the Board, other than any function so far as its exercise involves—
making a public protection decision in relation to a prisoner within the meaning of section 237A(2) of this Act or section 28ZA(2) of the 1997 Act;
giving a direction for the release of a prisoner on licence under this Chapter or under Chapter 2 of Part 2 of the 1997 Act;
making a decision or giving a direction under subsection (4) or (4F) of section 31A of the 1997 Act (imprisonment or detention for public protection: termination of licences);
reconsidering a decision or setting aside a decision or direction under provision made by virtue of subsection (5A).
The Secretary of State may also give to the Board directions as to the matters to be taken into account by it in discharging any functions under this Chapter or under Chapter 2 of Part 2 of the 1997 Act; and in giving any such directions the Secretary of State must have regard to—
the need to protect the public from serious harm from offenders, and
the desirability of preventing the commission by them of further offences and of securing their rehabilitation.
Schedule 19 shall have effect with respect to the Board.
Effect of remand in custodyor on bail subject to certain types of condition
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This section applies where—
an offender is serving a term of imprisonment in respect of an offence, and
the offender has been remanded in custody (within the meaning given by section 242) in connection with the offence or a related offence.
This section also applies where—
a court, on or after the day on which Schedule 16 to the Police, Crime, Sentencing and Courts Act 2022 came into force, makes a detention and training order in respect of an offender for an offence, and
the offender concerned has been remanded in custody in connection with the offence or a related offence.
In this section any reference to a “sentence”, in relation to an offender, is to—
a term of imprisonment being served by the offender as mentioned in subsection (1)(a), or
a detention and training order made in respect of the offender as mentioned in subsection (1A)(a).
It is immaterial for the purposes of subsection (1)(b) or (1A)(b) whether, for all or part of the period during which the offender was remanded in custody, the offender was also remanded in custody in connection with other offences (but see subsection (5)).
The number of days for which the offender was remanded in custody in connection with the offence or a related offence is to count as time served by the offender as part of the sentence. But this is subject to subsections (4) to (6).
If, on any day on which the offender was remanded in custody, the offender was also detained in connection with any other matter, that day is not to count as time served.
A day counts as time served—
in relation to only one sentence, and
only once in relation to that sentence.
Where a court has made a declaration under section 327 of the Sentencing Code in relation to the offender in respect of the offence, this section applies to days specified under subsection (3) of that section as if they were days for which the offender was remanded in custody in connection with the offence or a related offence.
For the purposes of this section a suspended sentence—
is to be treated as a sentence of imprisonment when it takes effect under paragraph 13(1)(a) or (b) of Schedule 16 to the Sentencing Code, and
is to be treated as being imposed by the order under which it takes effect.
In this section “related offence” means an offence, other than the offence for which the sentence is imposed (“offence A”), with which the offender was charged and the charge for which was founded on the same facts or evidence as offence A.
Subsection (9) applies in relation to an offender who is sentenced to two or more consecutive sentences or sentences which are wholly or partly concurrent if—
the sentences were imposed on the same occasion, or
where they were imposed on different occasions, the offender has not been released during the period beginning with the first and ending with the last of those occasions.
For the purposes of subsections (3) and (5), the sentences are to be treated as a single sentence.
The reference in subsection (4) to detention in connection with any other matter does not include remand in custody in connection with another offence but includes—
detention pursuant to any custodial sentence;
committal in default of payment of any sum of money;
committal for want of sufficient distress to satisfy any sum of money;
committal for failure to do or abstain from doing anything required to be done or left undone.
Subsection (2) applies where—
a court sentences an offender to imprisonment for a term in respect of an offence of which the offender was convicted before 1 December 2020 ... ,
the offender was remanded on bail by a court in course of or in connection with proceedings for the offence, or any related offence, after the coming into force of section 21 of the Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008, and
the offender's bail was subject to a qualifying curfew condition and an electronic monitoring condition (“the relevant conditions”).
Subject to subsections (3A) and (3B), the court must direct that the credit period is to count as time served by the offender as part of the sentence.
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Subsection (3ZB) applies where—
an offender is serving a term of imprisonment in respect of an offence, and
the court has made a declaration under section 325 of the Sentencing Code specifying a credit period in relation to the sentence.
Subsection (3ZB) also applies where—
a court, on or after the day on which Schedule 16 to the Police, Crime, Sentencing and Courts Act 2022 came into force, makes a detention and training order in respect of an offender for an offence, and
the court has made a declaration under section 325 of the Sentencing Code specifying a credit period in relation to the order.
In this section any reference to a “sentence”, in relation to an offender, is to—
a term of imprisonment being served by the offender as mentioned in subsection (3ZA)(a), or
a detention and training order made in respect of the offender as mentioned in subsection (3ZAA)(a).
Subject to subsections (3A) and (3B), the credit period is to count as time served by the offender as part of the sentence.
A day of the credit period counts as time served—
in relation to only one sentence, and
only once in relation to that sentence.
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Subsections (7) to (9) and (11) of section 240ZA apply for the purposes of this section as they apply for the purposes of that section but as if—
in subsection (7)—
the reference to a suspended sentence is to be read as including a reference to a sentence to which an order under section 118(1) of the PCC(S)A 2000 relates;
in subsection (9) the references to subsections (3) and (5) of section 240ZA are to be read as a reference to subsections (2) and (3ZB) of this section and, in paragraph (b), after “Chapter” there were inserted or Part 2 of the Criminal Justice Act 1991.
In this section—“curfew requirement” means a requirement (however described) to remain at one or more specified places for a specified number of hours in any given day, provided that the requirement is imposed by a court or the Secretary of State and arises as a result of a conviction;“electronic monitoring condition” means any electronic monitoring requirements imposed under section 3(6ZAA) of the Bail Act 1976 for the purpose of securing the electronic monitoring of a person's compliance with a qualifying curfew condition;“qualifying curfew condition” means a condition of bail which requires the person granted bail to remain at one or more specified places for a total of not less than 9 hours in any given day;.... . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
In determining for the purposes of this Chapter ... whether a person to whom section 240ZA applies or a direction under section 240A or under section 325 of the Sentencing Code relates —the number of days specified in section 240ZA or in the direction under section 240A or under section 325 of the Sentencing Code are to be treated as having been served by him as part of that sentence or period.
has served, or would (but for his release) have served, a particular proportion of his sentence, or
has served a particular period,
In subsection (1) the reference to section 240ZA includes section 246 of the Armed Forces Act 2006.
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For the purposes of sections 240ZA, 240A and 241, the definition of “sentence of imprisonment” in section 305 applies as if for the words from the beginning of the definition to the end of paragraph (a) there were substituted—; and references in those sections to sentencing an offender to imprisonment, and to an offender’s sentence, are to be read accordingly.
References in sections 240ZA and 241 to an offender’s being remanded in custody are references to his being—
remanded in or committed to custody by order of a court,
remanded to youth detention accommodation under section 91(4) of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012, or
remanded, admitted or removed to hospital under section 35, 36, 38 or 48 of the Mental Health Act 1983 (c. 20).
In sections 240ZA and 240A, “detention and training order” has the meaning given by section 233 of the Sentencing Code.
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A fixed-term prisoner is an extradited prisoner for the purposes of this section if—
he was tried for the offence in respect of which his sentence was imposed or he received that sentence—
after having been extradited to the United Kingdom, and
without having first been restored or had an opportunity of leaving the United Kingdom, and
he was for any period kept in custody while awaiting his extradition to the United Kingdom as mentioned in paragraph (a), and
the court has specified under section 327(3) of the Sentencing Code the number of days for which the prisoner was so kept in custody.
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Section 240ZA applies to days specified under section 327(3) of the Sentencing Code as if they were days for which the prisoner was remanded in custody in connection with the offence or a related offence.
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Unconditional release
This section applies to a fixed-term prisoner if—
the prisoner is serving a sentence which is for a term of 1 day, or
the prisoner—
is serving a sentence which is for a term of less than 12 months, and
is aged under 18 on the last day of the requisite custodial period.
This section also applies to a fixed-term prisoner if—
the prisoner is serving a sentence which is for a term of less than 12 months, and
the sentence was imposed in respect of an offence committed before the day on which section 1 of the Offender Rehabilitation Act 2014 came into force.
But this section does not apply to a prisoner to whom section 247A applies.
As soon as a prisoner to whom this section applies has served the requisite custodial period for the purposes of this section, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release that person unconditionally.
Subsection (2) does not apply if—
the prisoner’s case has been referred to the Board under section 244ZB, or
a notice given to the prisoner under subsection (4) of that section is in force.
For the purposes of this section “the requisite custodial period” is—
in relation to a person serving one sentence, one-half of the sentence, and
in relation to a person serving two or more concurrent or consecutive sentences, the period determined under sections 263(2) and 264(2B) or (2E).
This section is subject to—
section 256B (supervision of young offenders after release), and
paragraph 8 of Schedule 20B (transitional cases).
Release on licence
As soon as a fixed-term prisoner, other than a prisoner to whom section 243A, 244ZA, 244A , 246A , 247 or 247A applies, has served the requisite custodial period for the purposes of this section, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release him on licence under this section.
Subsection (1) does not apply if—
the prisoner’s case has been referred to the Board under section 244ZB, or
a notice given to the prisoner under subsection (4) of that section is in force.
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For the purposes of this section “the requisite custodial period” means—
in relation to a prisoner serving one sentence, one-half of his sentence,
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in relation to a person serving two or more concurrent or consecutive sentences ... , the period determined under sections 263(2) and 264(2B) or (2E).
This section is subject to paragraphs 5, 6, 8, 25 and 28 of Schedule 20B (transitional cases).
As soon as a fixed-term prisoner to whom this section applies has served the requisite custodial period for the purposes of this section, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release the prisoner on licence under this section.
This section applies to a prisoner who—
is serving a fixed-term sentence within subsection (4), (5) or (6),
Subsection (1) does not apply if—
the prisoner’s case has been referred to the Board under section 244ZB, or
a notice given to the prisoner under subsection (4) of that section is in force.
A fixed-term sentence is within this subsection if it—
is a sentence of—
imprisonment, or
is for a term of 7 years or more,
was imposed on or after 1 April 2020, and
was imposed in respect of an offence—
that is specified in Part 1 or 2 of Schedule 15, and
for which a sentence of life imprisonment could have been imposed (in the case of an offender aged 21 or over) at the time when the actual sentence was imposed.
A fixed-term sentence is within this subsection if it—
is a sentence of imprisonment or a sentence of detention under section 262 of the Sentencing Code,
is for a term of at least 4 years but less than 7 years,
was imposed on or after the day on which section 130 of the Police, Crime, Sentencing and Courts Act 2022 came into force, and
was imposed in respect of an offence within subsection (7).
A fixed-term sentence is within this subsection if it—
is a sentence of detention under section 250 of the Sentencing Code,
is for a term of 7 years or more,
was imposed on or after the day on which section 130 of the Police, Crime, Sentencing and Courts Act 2022 came into force, and
was imposed in respect of an offence within subsection (7).
An offence is within this subsection if—
it is specified in any of the following paragraphs of Part 1 of Schedule 15—
paragraph 1 (manslaughter);
paragraph 4 (soliciting murder);
paragraph 6 (wounding with intent to cause grievous bodily harm);
paragraph 64 (ancillary offences), so far as it relates to an offence listed in paragraph 1, 4 or 6;
paragraph 65 (inchoate offences in relation to murder), or
it is an offence—
that is specified in Part 2 of that Schedule (sexual offences), and
for which a sentence of life imprisonment could have been imposed (in the case of an offender aged 21 or over) at the time when the actual sentence was imposed.
For the purposes of this section “the requisite custodial period” means—
in relation to a prisoner serving one sentence, two-thirds of the prisoner’s sentence, and
in relation to a prisoner serving two or more concurrent or consecutive sentences, the period determined under sections 263(2) and 264(2B) or (2E).
For the purposes of this section, a reference to an offence specified in a paragraph or Part of Schedule 15 includes a reference to a service offence as respects which the corresponding civil offence is so specified.
In subsection (9)—
“service offence” means an offence under—
section 70 of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force Act 1955,
section 42 of the Naval Discipline Act 1957, or
section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006;
“corresponding civil offence” means—
in relation to an offence under section 70 of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force Act 1955, the corresponding civil offence within the meaning of that Act;
in relation to an offence under section 42 of the Naval Discipline Act 1957, the civil offence within the meaning of that section;
in relation to an offence under section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006, the corresponding offence under the law of England and Wales within the meaning of that section.
Section 48 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (supplementary provisions relating to ancillary service offences) applies for the purposes of subsection (10)(b)(iii) above as it applies for the purposes of the provisions of that Act referred to in subsection (3)(b) of that section.
This section applies to a prisoner who—
is (or will be) aged 18 or over on the first day on which the prisoner would be so entitled.
For the purposes of this section, the Secretary of State is of the requisite opinion if the Secretary of State believes on reasonable grounds that the prisoner would, if released, pose a significant risk to members of the public of serious harm occasioned by the commission of any of the following offences—
murder;
specified offences, within the meaning of section 306 of the Sentencing Code.
If the Secretary of State is of the requisite opinion, the Secretary of State may refer the prisoner’s case to the Board.
Before referring the prisoner’s case to the Board, the Secretary of State must notify the prisoner in writing of the Secretary of State’s intention to do so (and the reference may be made only if the notice is in force).
A notice given under subsection (4) must take effect before the prisoner becomes entitled as mentioned in subsection (1)(a).
A notice given under subsection (4) must explain—
the effect of the notice (including its effect under section 243A(2A), 244(1ZA) or 244ZA(3)),
why the Secretary of State is of the requisite opinion, and
the prisoner’s right to make representations (see subsection (12)).
A notice given under subsection (4)—
takes effect at whichever is the earlier of—
the time when it is received by the prisoner, and
the time when it would ordinarily be received by the prisoner, and
remains in force until—
the Secretary of State refers the prisoner’s case to the Board under this section, or
the notice is revoked.
The Secretary of State—
may revoke a notice given under subsection (4), and
must do so if the Secretary of State is no longer of the requisite opinion.
If a notice given under subsection (4) is in force and the prisoner would but for the notice have become entitled as mentioned in subsection (1)(a)—
the prisoner may apply to the High Court on the ground that the prisoner’s release has been delayed by the notice for longer than is reasonably necessary in order for the Secretary of State to complete the referral of the prisoner’s case to the Board, and
the High Court, if satisfied that that ground is made out, must by order revoke the notice.
At any time before the Board disposes of a reference under this section, the Secretary of State—
may rescind the reference, and
must do so if the Secretary of State is no longer of the requisite opinion.
If the reference is rescinded, the prisoner is no longer to be treated as one whose case has been referred to the Board under this section (but this does not have the effect of reviving the notice under subsection (4)).
The prisoner may make representations to the Secretary of State about the referral, or proposed referral, of the prisoner’s case at any time after being notified under subsection (4) and before the Board disposes of any ensuing reference under this section. But the Secretary of State is not required to delay the referral of the prisoner’s case in order to give an opportunity for such representations to be made.
This section applies to a prisoner whose case has been referred to the Parole Board under section 244ZB.
If, in disposing of that reference or any subsequent reference of the prisoner’s case to the Board under this subsection, the Board does not direct the prisoner’s release, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to refer the prisoner’s case to the Board again no later than the first anniversary of the disposal.
It is the duty of the Secretary of State to release the prisoner on licence as soon as—
the prisoner has served the requisite custodial period, and
the Board has directed the release of the prisoner under this section.
The Board must not give a direction under subsection (3) in disposing of the reference under section 244ZB unless the Board is satisfied that it is no longer necessary for the protection of the public that the prisoner should be confined.
The Board must not subsequently give a direction under subsection (3) unless—
the Secretary of State has referred the prisoner’s case to the Board under subsection (2), and
the Board is satisfied that it is no longer necessary for the protection of the public that the prisoner should be confined.
For the purposes of this section, the “requisite custodial period” means the period ending with the day on which the prisoner would have become entitled as mentioned in section 244ZB(1)(a).
The Secretary of State must refer P's case to the Board—
as soon as P has served the requisite custodial period, and
where there has been a previous reference of P's case to the Board under this subsection and the Board did not direct P's release, not later than the second anniversary of the disposal of that reference.
It is the duty of the Secretary of State to release P on licence under this section as soon as—
P has served the requisite custodial period, and
the Board has directed P's release under this section.
The Board must not give a direction under subsection (3) unless—
the Secretary of State has referred P's case to the Board, and
the Board is satisfied that it is not necessary for the protection of the public that P should be confined.
It is the duty of the Secretary of State to release P on licence under this section as soon as P has served the appropriate custodial term, unless P has previously been released on licence under this section and recalled under section 254 (provision for the release of such persons being made by sections 255A to 255C).
For the purposes of this section—“the appropriate custodial term” means the term determined as such by the court under section 236A or under section 252A, 265 or 278 of the Sentencing Code;“the requisite custodial period” means—in relation to a person serving one sentence imposed before the day on which section 131 of the Police, Crime, Sentencing and Courts Act 2022 came into force, one-half of the appropriate custodial term, in relation to a person serving one sentence imposed on or after that day, two-thirds of the appropriate custodial term, and in relation to a person serving two or more concurrent or consecutive sentences, the period determined under sections 263(2) and 264(2D).
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Subject to subsections (2) to (4), the Secretary of State may—
release on licence under this section a fixed-term prisoner , other than one to whom section 244ZA, 244A, 246A, 247, 247A or 247B or paragraph 4 or 24 of Schedule 20B applies, ... at any time during the period of 365 days ending with the day on which the prisoner will have served the requisite custodial period, ...
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Subsection (1)(a) does not apply in relation to a prisoner unless—
the length of the requisite custodial period is at least 6 weeks, and
he has served—
at least 4 weeks of that period, and
at least one-half of that period.
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Subsection (1) does not apply where—
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the prisoner is one to whom section 244ZA would apply if—
section 244ZA(4)(c), (5)(c) and (6)(c) were omitted,
the sentence is for an offence under section 1 of the Prisoners (Return to Custody) Act 1995 (c. 16),
the prisoner is subject to a hospital order, hospital direction or transfer direction under section 37, 45A or 47 of the Mental Health Act 1983 (c. 20),
the prisoner is subject to the notification requirements of Part 2 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 (c. 42),
the prisoner is liable to removal from the United Kingdom,
the prisoner’s case has been referred to the Board under section 244ZB,
a notice given to the prisoner under subsection (4) of that section is in force,
the following apply—
the requisite custodial period in relation to the previous sentence ended less than 2 years before the day on which the current sentence began,
the following apply—
the prisoner has been released on licence under section 34A of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 in relation to a previous sentence and has been recalled to prison under section 38A(1)(a) of that Act (and the revocation of the licence has not been cancelled under section 38A(3) of that Act), and
the requisite custodial period in relation to the previous sentence ended less than 2 years before the day on which the current sentence began,
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in the case of a prisoner to whom section 240ZA applies or a direction under section 240A or under section 325 of the Sentencing Code relates, the interval between the date on which the sentence was passed and the date on which the prisoner will have served the requisite custodial period is less than 14 days ... .
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In subsection (4)—
the reference in paragraph (d) to a community order includes a service community order or overseas community order under the Armed Forces Act 2006; and
the reference in paragraph (i) to section 240ZA includes section 246 of that Act.
The Secretary of State may by order—
amend the number of days for the time being specified in subsection (1)(a) ... or (4)(i),
amend the number of weeks for the time being specified in subsection (2)(a) or (b)(i), and
amend the fraction for the time being specified in subsection (2)(b)(ii) ... .
In this section—
It is the duty of the Secretary of State to release P on licence under this section as soon as P has served the requisite custodial period for the purposes of this section if—
the sentence was imposed before the coming into force of section 4 of the Criminal Justice and Courts Act 2015,
the appropriate custodial term is less than 10 years, and
the sentence was not imposed in respect of an offence listed in Parts 1 to 3 of Schedule 15B or in respect of offences that include one or more offences listed in those Parts of that Schedule.
In any other case, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release P on licence in accordance with subsections (4) to (7).
The Secretary of State must refer P's case to the Board—
as soon as P has served the requisite custodial period, and
where there has been a previous reference of P's case to the Board under this subsection and the Board did not direct P's release, not later than the second anniversary of the disposal of that reference.
It is the duty of the Secretary of State to release P on licence under this section as soon as—
P has served the requisite custodial period, and
the Board has directed P's release under this section.
The Board must not give a direction under subsection (5) unless—
the Secretary of State has referred P's case to the Board, and
the Board is satisfied that it is no longer necessary for the protection of the public that P should be confined.
It is the duty of the Secretary of State to release P on licence under this section as soon as P has served the appropriate custodial term, unless P has previously been released on licence under this section and recalled under section 254 (provision for the release of such persons being made by section 255C).
For the purposes of this section—“appropriate custodial term” means the term determined as such by the court under section 226A or 226B or under section 254, 266 or 279 of the Sentencing Code(as appropriate);“the requisite custodial period” means—in relation to a person serving one sentence, two-thirds of the appropriate custodial term, and in relation to a person serving two or more concurrent or consecutive sentences, the period determined under sections 263(2) and 264(2B), (2D) or (2E).
The Board must comply with this section when making a public protection decision about a prisoner under section 246A(6)(b), for the purposes of section 246A(5), if—
the prisoner's sentence was passed for manslaughter;
the Board does not know where and how the victim's remains were disposed of; and
the Board believes that the prisoner has information about where, or how, the victim's remains were disposed of (whether the information relates to the actions of the prisoner or any other individual) which the prisoner has not disclosed to the Board (“the prisoner's non-disclosure”).
When making the public protection decision about the prisoner, the Board must take into account—
the prisoner's non-disclosure; and
the reasons, in the Board's view, for the prisoner's non-disclosure.
This section does not limit the matters which the Board must or may take into account when making a public protection decision.
In subsection (1)(a) the reference to a sentence includes a sentence passed before the coming into force of section 2 of the Prisoners (Disclosure of Information About Victims) Act 2020.
In this section, in relation to a prisoner—“public protection decision” has the meaning given by section 237A(2);“victim” means the victim of the offence for which the prisoner's sentence was passed; and a reference to the victim's remains being disposed of includes the remains being left at the location where the victim died.
The Board must comply with this section when making a public protection decision about a prisoner under section 246A(6)(b), for the purposes of section 246A(5), if—
the prisoner's sentence was passed for—
an offence of taking an indecent photograph of a child, or
a relevant offence of making an indecent pseudo-photograph of a child;
the Board does not know the identity of the child who is the subject of the relevant indecent image; and
the Board believes that the prisoner has information about the identity of the child who is the subject of the relevant indecent image which the prisoner has not disclosed to the Board (“the prisoner's non-disclosure”).
When making the public protection decision about the prisoner, the Board must take into account—
the prisoner's non-disclosure; and
the reasons, in the Board's view, for the prisoner's non-disclosure.
This section does not limit the matters which the Board must or may take into account when making a public protection decision.
In subsection (1)(a), the reference to a sentence includes a sentence passed before the coming into force of section 2 of the Prisoners (Disclosure of Information About Victims) Act 2020.
For the purposes of this section, an offence is—
an “offence of taking an indecent photograph of a child” if it is an offence under section 1(1)(a) of the Protection of Children Act 1978 of taking an indecent photograph of a child;
a “relevant offence of making an indecent pseudo-photograph of a child” if—and, in the application of this section to a relevant offence of making an indecent pseudo-photograph of a child, the references in subsection (1)(b) and (c) to the child who is the subject of the relevant indecent image are references to the real child.
it is an offence under section 1(1)(a) of the Protection of Children Act 1978 of making an indecent pseudo-photograph of a child, and
the Board believes that an image of a real child was or may have been used in the making of the pseudo-photograph;
In this section—“public protection decision”, in relation to a prisoner, has the meaning given by section 237A(2);“relevant indecent image” means—the photograph to which an offence of taking an indecent photograph of a child relates, or the pseudo-photograph to which a relevant offence of making an indecent pseudo-photograph of a child relates.
As soon as—it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release him on licence.
a prisoner to whom this section applies has served the requisite custodial period, . . .
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In this section—“the appropriate custodial term” means the period determined by the court as the appropriate custodial term under section 227 or 228;“the requisite custodial period” means—in relation to a person serving one sentence, one-half of the appropriate custodial term, and in relation to a person serving two or more concurrent or consecutive sentences, the period determined under sections 263(2) and 264(2B) or (2E).
In its application to a person serving a sentence imposed before 14 July 2008, this section is subject to the modifications set out in paragraph 15 of Schedule 20B (transitional cases).
This section applies to a prisoner (a “terrorist prisoner”) who—
is serving a fixed-term sentence imposed (whether before or after this section comes into force) in respect of an offence within subsection (2), and
has not been released on licence.
An offence is within this subsection (whenever it was committed) if—
it is specified in Part 1 or 2 of Schedule 19ZA (terrorism offences punishable with imprisonment for life or for more than two years),
it is a service offence as respects which the corresponding civil offence is so specified, or
it was determined to have a terrorist connection.
Subsections (3) to (5) apply unless the terrorist prisoner's sentence was imposed—
on or after the day on which section 27 of the Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 comes into force, and
in respect of an offence that—
is specified in Part 1 of Schedule 19ZA (terrorism offences punishable with imprisonment for life),
is a service offence as respects which the corresponding civil offence is so specified,
is specified in Part 3 of that Schedule (other offences punishable with imprisonment for life) and was determined to have a terrorist connection, or
is a service offence as respects which the corresponding civil offence is so specified, and was determined to have a terrorist connection.
It is the duty of the Secretary of State to refer the case of a terrorist prisoner to the Board—
as soon as the prisoner has served the requisite custodial period, and
where there has been a previous reference of the prisoner's case to the Board under this subsection and the Board did not direct the prisoner's release, no later than the second anniversary of the disposal of that reference.
It is the duty of the Secretary of State to release a terrorist prisoner on licence as soon as—
the prisoner has served the requisite custodial period, and
the Board has directed the release of the prisoner under this section.
The Board must not give a direction under subsection (4) unless—
the Secretary of State has referred the terrorist prisoner's case to the Board, and
the Board is satisfied that it is no longer necessary for the protection of the public that the prisoner should be confined.
For the purposes of this section, an offence was determined to have a terrorist connection if it was—
determined to have a terrorist connection under—
section 30 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (in the case of an offender sentenced in England and Wales before the Sentencing Code applied, or an offender sentenced in Northern Ireland but now subject to the provisions of this Chapter), or
section 32 of that Act (in the case of a person sentenced for a service offence before the Sentencing Code applied), or
proved to have been aggravated by reason of having a terrorist connection under section 31 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (in the case of an offender sentenced in Scotland but now subject to the provisions of this Chapter).
For the purposes of this section—“the appropriate custodial term”, in relation to a sentence imposed under section 226A, 226B, 227, 228 or 236A, or under section 252A, 254, 265, 266, 268A, 278, 279 or 282A of the Sentencing Code, means the term determined as such by the court under that provision;“the requisite custodial period” means—in relation to a person serving one sentence imposed under section 226A, 226B, 227, 228, or 236A, or under section 252A, 254, 265, 266, 278 or 279 of the Sentencing Code, two-thirds of the appropriate custodial term, in relation to a person serving one sentence of any other kind, two-thirds of the sentence, and in relation to a person serving two or more concurrent or consecutive sentences, the period determined under sections 263(2) and 264(2B), (2D) or (2E);“service offence”, and “corresponding civil offence”have the same meanings as in the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (see section 95 of that Act).
For the purposes of this section, a reference of a terrorist prisoner's case to the Board disposed of before the day on which this section comes into force is to be treated as if it was made (and disposed of) under subsection (3) if—
it was made under section 244A(2)(b) and disposed of at a time when the prisoner had served the requisite custodial period(within the meaning of this section, not section 244A), or
it was made under section 246A(4).
Nothing in this section affects the duty of the Secretary of State to release a person whose release has been directed by the Board before this section comes into force.
In the case of a prisoner to whom this section applies as a result of the amendments made by sub-paragraph (2) of paragraph 45 of Schedule 13 to the Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021, the references in subsections (9) and (10) to the date on which this section comes into force are to be read as references to the date on which that sub-paragraph comes into force.
In the case of a prisoner to whom this section applies as a result of the amendments made by paragraph 3 of Schedule 27 to the Crime and Policing Act 2026, the references in subsections (9) and (10) to the date on which this section comes into force are to be read as references to the date on which that paragraph comes into force.
This section is subject to paragraphs 5, 17 and 19 of Schedule 20B (transitional cases).
The Secretary of State may at any time release a fixed-term prisoner on licence if he is satisfied that exceptional circumstances exist which justify the prisoner’s release on compassionate grounds.
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This section is subject to paragraphs 17, 19 and 26 of Schedule 20B (transitional cases).
In this section—
“the standard conditions” means such conditions as may be prescribed for the purposes of this section as standard conditions, and
“prescribed” means prescribed by the Secretary of State by order.
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Any licence under this Chapter in respect of a prisoner serving a sentence of imprisonment ... (including ... a sentence imposed under section 226A , 227 or 236A or under section 278, 279 or 282A of the Sentencing Code) or any sentence of detention under section 91 or 96 of the PCC(S)A 2000, under section 250, 252A, 254, 262, 265, 266 or 268A of the Sentencing Code or under section 226A, 226B, 227 , 228 or 236A of this Act—
must include the standard conditions,
must include any electronic monitoring conditions required by an order under section 62A of the Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000, and
may include—
such other conditions of a kind prescribed by the Secretary of State for the purposes of this paragraph as the Secretary of State may for the time being specify in the licence.
In exercising any power under subsection (4)(b) in respect of an offender, the Secretary of State must have regard to any recommendation under section 328 of the Sentencing Code (power of court to recommend licence conditions where adult is sentenced to term of 12 months or more).
Subject to subsection (5D), the Secretary of State must not—unless the Board directs the Secretary of State to do so (and must, if the Board so directs, include, vary or cancel such a condition).
include a condition referred to in subsection (4)(b)(ii) in a licence within subsection (5B), either on release or subsequently, or
vary or cancel any such condition included in such a licence,
A licence is within this subsection if it is granted to a relevant prisoner—
on their initial release in a case where that release is at the direction of the Board, or
In subsection (5B), “relevant prisoner” means a prisoner to whom section 244ZC, 244A, 246A, 247 or 247A applies (or applied) for the purposes of their initial release.
Where the High Court gives a direction under section 256AZBC(2) as to the conditions to be included in a prisoner’s licence on release, the Secretary of State—
must include the conditions in the prisoner’s licence on release;
may subsequently insert a condition in such a licence or vary or cancel a condition of such a licence.
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In exercising his powers to prescribe standard conditions or the other conditions referred to in subsection (4)(b)(ii), the Secretary of State must have regard to the following purposes of the supervision of offenders while on licence under this Chapter—
the protection of the public,
the prevention of re-offending, and
securing the successful re-integration of the prisoner into the community.
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A person subject to a licence under this Chapter must comply with such conditions as may for the time being be specified in the licence.
But where—the conditions specified in the licence apply to him only so far as it is practicable for him to comply with them where he is residing.
the licence relates to a sentence of imprisonment passed by a service court, and
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the person is residing outside the British Islands,
For the purposes of this Chapter, a curfew condition is a condition which—
requires the released person to remain, for periods for the time being specified in the condition, at a place for the time being so specified (which may be premises approved by the Secretary of State under section 13 of the Offender Management Act 2007 (c.21)), and
includes a requirement, imposed under section 62 of the Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000, to submit to electronic monitoring of his whereabouts during the periods for the time being so specified.
The curfew condition may specify different places or different periods for different days, but may not specify periods which amount to less than 9 hours in any one day (excluding for this purpose the first and last days of the period for which the condition is in force).
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Nothing in this section is to be taken to require the Secretary of State to ensure that arrangements are made for the electronic monitoring of released persons' whereabouts in any particular part of England and Wales.
Recall after release
The Secretary of State may, in the case of any prisoner who has been released on licence under this Chapter, revoke his licence and recall him to prison.
A person recalled to prison under subsection (1)—
may make representations in writing with respect to his recall, and
on his return to prison, must be informed of the reasons for his recall and of his right to make representations.
The Secretary of State, after considering any representations under subsection (2)(a) or any other matters, may cancel a revocation under this section.
The Secretary of State may cancel a revocation under subsection (2A) only if satisfied that the person recalled has complied with all the conditions specified in the licence.
Where the revocation of a person's licence is cancelled under subsection (2A), the person is to be treated as if the recall under subsection (1) had not happened.
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On the revocation of the licence of any person under this section, he shall be liable to be detained in pursuance of his sentence and, if at large, is to be treated as being unlawfully at large.
The Secretary of State may by order amend this Chapter so as to make provision for and about circumstances or cases in which the Secretary of State may, or may not, revoke a person’s licence and recall the person to prison under subsection (1).
An order under subsection (6A) may confer a function (including the exercise of a discretion) on the Secretary of State or another person, or description of person, specified in the order.
Nothing in this section applies in relation to a person recalled under section 255.
If it appears to the Secretary of State, as regards a person released on licence under section 246—the Secretary of State may, if the curfew condition is still in force, revoke the licence and recall the person to prison under this section.
that he has failed to comply with the curfew condition included in the licence, or
that his whereabouts can no longer be electronically monitored at the place for the time being specified in the curfew condition included in his licence,
A person whose licence under section 246 is revoked under this section—
may make representations in writing with respect to the revocation, and
on his return to prison, must be informed of the reasons for the revocation and of his right to make representations.
The Secretary of State, after considering any representations under subsection (2)(a) or any other matters, may cancel a revocation under this section.
Where the revocation of a person’s licence is cancelled under subsection (3), the person is to be treated for the purposes of section 246 as if he had not been recalled to prison under this section.
On the revocation of a person’s licence under section 246, he is liable to be detained in pursuance of his sentence and, if at large, is to be treated as being unlawfully at large.
has been notified of the recall orally or in writing, and
while unlawfully at large fails, without reasonable excuse, to take all necessary steps to return to prison as soon as possible.
A person is to be treated for the purposes of subsection (1)(a) as having been notified of the recall if—
written notice of the recall has been delivered to an appropriate address, and
a period specified in the notice has elapsed.
In subsection (2) “an appropriate address” means—
an address at which, under the person's licence, the person is permitted to reside or stay, or
an address nominated, in accordance with the person's licence, for the purposes of this section.
A person is also to be treated for the purposes of subsection (1)(a) as having been notified of the recall if—
the person's licence requires the person to keep in touch in accordance with any instructions given by an officer of a provider of probation services,
the person has failed to comply with such an instruction, and
the person has not complied with such an instruction for at least 6 months.
A person who is guilty of an offence under this section is liable—
on conviction on indictment to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine (or both);
on summary conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both).
In relation to an offence committed before 2 May 2022, the reference in subsection (5)(b) to the general limit in a magistrates’ court is to be read as a reference to 6 months.
In relation to an offence committed before section 85 of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 comes into force, the reference in subsection (5)(b) to a fine is to be read as a reference to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum.
Further release after recall
The Secretary of State must, on recalling a person other than an extended sentence prisoner, a serious terrorism prisoner or a prisoner whose case was referred to the Board under section 244ZB, consider whether the person is suitable for automatic release.
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A person is suitable for automatic release only if—
the person meets the conditions in subsection (4ZA),
where paragraph (a) does not apply, the Secretary of State is satisfied that the person will not present a risk of serious harm to members of the public if released at the end of the automatic release period.
The conditions referred to in subsection (4)(a) are—
that the person is aged 18 or over;
that the person is serving a sentence of less than four years;
that the person is not serving a sentence in respect of an offence listed in Schedule 19AA (offences where offender not suitable for automatic release);
that the person is not serving a fixed-term sentence imposed in respect of an offence within section 247A(2) (terrorist prisoners);
that the person does not fall within paragraph (aa) or (c) of section 325(2) (relevant terrorist offenders, etc);
that the person has not been recalled on account of being charged with an offence;
that the person is not being managed at level 2 or 3, as specified in guidance for the time being issued under section 325(8), by a responsible authority under arrangements made under that section (arrangements for assessing etc risks posed by certain offenders).
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The person must be dealt with—but that is subject, where applicable, to section 243A(2) (unconditional release).
in accordance with section 255B if suitable for automatic release;
in accordance with section 255C otherwise.
For the purposes of this section, a person returns to custody when that person, having been recalled, is detained (whether or not in prison) in pursuance of the sentence.
section 226A, 226B, 227 or 228 of this Act,...
section 254, 266 or 279 of the Sentencing Code, or
section 85 of the PCC(S)A 2000;
A “serious terrorism prisoner” is a prisoner serving a serious terrorism sentence imposed under section 268A or 282A of the Sentencing Code.
Automatic release” means release at the end of the automatic release period.
where the person is serving a sentence of less than 12 months, the period of 14 days beginning with the day on which the person returns to custody;
where the person is serving a sentence of 12 months or more, the period of 28 days beginning with that day.
the period described in subsection (9)(a) or (b) (as appropriate);
In this section—
subsections (7) and (8) apply to other persons.
The Secretary of State must, on recalling a relevant young offender other than an offender whose case was referred to the Board under section 244ZB, consider whether the offender is suitable for release at the end of the section 255B automatic release period (see section 255B(1A) and (1B) for the meaning of this period).
A relevant young offender is suitable for release at the end of the section 255B automatic release period only if—
the offender—
is aged 18 or over,
is serving a sentence of less than 12 months,
has not been recalled on account of being charged with a serious offence, and
is not being managed at level 2 or 3, as specified in guidance for the time being issued under section 325(8), by a responsible authority under arrangements made under that section (arrangements for assessing etc risks posed by certain offenders), or
where paragraph (a) does not apply, the Secretary of State is satisfied that the offender will not present a risk of serious harm to members of the public if released at the end of the section 255B automatic release period.
For the purposes of subsection (4)(a)(iii), “serious offence” means—
murder, or
an offence listed in Schedule 18 to the Sentencing Code.
A relevant young offender must be dealt with—but that is subject, where applicable, to section 243A(2) (unconditional release).
in accordance with section 255B if suitable for release at the end of the section 255B automatic release period;
in accordance with section 255C otherwise,
A person who is not a relevant young offender must be dealt with—but that is subject, where applicable, to section 243A(2) (unconditional release).
in accordance with section 255BA if—
the person is eligible for release at the end of the section 255BA automatic release period (see section 255BA(2) for the meaning of this period), and
the Secretary of State has not made a determination under subsection (5) of that section in relation to the person;
in accordance with section 255C otherwise,
A person who is not a relevant young offender is eligible for release at the end of the section 255BA automatic release period except where the person—
is an extended sentence prisoner,
is serving a sentence imposed in respect of an offence within section 247A(2) (terrorist prisoners),
is serving a sentence for an offence listed in Schedule 19ZB (offences involving or connected with terrorism or a threat to national security),
is serving a sentence for an offence listed in Part 3 of Schedule 13 to the Sentencing Code (offences involving or connected with a threat to national security),
is a relevant terrorist offender for the purposes of section 325(2)(aa) (see section 327),
falls, immediately before being recalled, within section 325(2)(c) (persons considered to be persons who may be at risk of involvement in terrorism-related activity),
is, immediately before being recalled, a person who is considered by the Secretary of State to be a person who may be at risk of involvement in foreign power threat activity within the meaning of Part 1 of the National Security Act 2023 (see section 33 of that Act),
is being managed, immediately before being recalled, at level 2 or 3, as specified in guidance for the time being issued under section 325(8), by a responsible authority under arrangements made under that section (arrangements for assessing etc risks posed by certain offenders),
is a person whose case was referred to the Board under section 244ZB (referral of high-risk offenders),
has been recalled on account of being charged with an offence, or
is a person to whom Part 2 or 3 of Schedule 20B applies (transitional cases).
section 226A, 226B, 227 or 228 of this Act,
section 254, 266 or 279 of the Sentencing Code, or
section 85 of the PCC(S)A 2000,
The Secretary of State may by order—
amend subsection (8) so as to—
add a description of person;
alter or remove a description of person for the time being mentioned in the subsection;
further amend this Act for the purpose of making provision which is consequential on provision made under paragraph (a).
An order under subsection (10) may confer a function (including the exercise of a discretion) on the Secretary of State or another person, or description of person, specified in the order.
A relevant young offender who is suitable for automatic release at the end of the section 255B automatic release period (“P”) must—
on return to prison, be informed that they will be released under this section (subject to subsections (8) and (9)), and
at the end of the section 255B automatic release period, be released by the Secretary of State on licence under this Chapter (unless P is released before that date under subsection (2) or (5)).
where the offender is serving a sentence of less than 12 months, the period of 14 days beginning with the day on which the offender returns to custody;
where the offender is serving a sentence of 12 months or more, the period of 28 days beginning with that day.
the period described in subsection (1A)(a) or (b) (as appropriate);
The Secretary of State may, at any time after P is returned to prison, release P again on licence under this Chapter.
The Secretary of State must not release P under subsection (2) unless the Secretary of State is satisfied that it is not necessary for the protection of the public that P should remain in prison until the end of the period mentioned in subsection (1)(b).
If P makes representations under section 254(2) before the end of that period, the Secretary of State must refer P's case to the Board on the making of those representations.
The Board must not give a direction for P’s release on a reference under subsection (4) unless the Board is satisfied that it is not necessary for the protection of the public that P should remain in prison until the end of the period mentioned in subsection (1)(b).
Where on a reference under subsection (4) the Board directs P's... release on licence under this Chapter, the Secretary of State must give effect to the direction.
Where this subsection applies—
if P is released under this section before that date, P's licence must include a curfew condition complying with section 253, and
P is not to be so released (despite subsections (1)(b) and (5)) unless the Secretary of State is satisfied that arrangements are in place to enable that condition to be complied with.
Subsection (9) applies if, after P has been informed that he or she will be released under this section, the Secretary of State receives further information about P (whether or not relating to any time before P was recalled).
If the Secretary of State determines, having regard to that and any other relevant information, that P is not suitable for release at the end of the section 255B automatic release period—
the Secretary of State must inform P that he or she will not be released under this section, and
section 255C applies to P as if the Secretary of State had determined, on P's recall, that P was not suitable for release at the end of the section 255B automatic release period.
Subsections (8) and (9) do not apply where P falls within section 255A(4)(a), unless the Secretary of State receives information that, after being recalled, P has been charged with a serious offence (within the meaning of section 255A(5)).
For the purposes of subsections (1A) and (1B), a person returns to custody when the person, having been recalled, is detained (whether or not in prison) in pursuance of the sentence.
In this section, “relevant young offender” has the same meaning as in section 255A.
A prisoner who is eligible for automatic release at the end of the section 255BA automatic release period (“P”) must—
on return to prison, be informed that they will be released under this section (subject to subsections (5) to (9)), and
at the end of the section 255BA automatic release period, be released by the Secretary of State on licence under this Chapter (unless P is released before that date under subsection (3) or P falls within subsection (9)(b)).
The “section 255BA automatic release period”, in relation to P, means—
the period of 56 days beginning with the day on which P returns to custody;
The Secretary of State may, at any time after P is returned to prison, release P again on licence under this Chapter.
The Secretary of State must not release P under subsection (3) unless the Secretary of State is satisfied that it is not necessary for the protection of the public that P should remain in prison until the end of the section 255BA automatic release period.
The Secretary of State must not be satisfied as mentioned in subsection (4) unless the Secretary of State considers that there is no more than a minimal risk that, if P were released before the end of the period mentioned in subsection (1)(b), P would commit a further offence the commission of which would cause serious harm (and section 237A(4) applies for the purposes of that assessment).
Subsection (9) applies in relation to P if at any time the Secretary of State determines that P should not be released at the end of the section 255BA automatic release period.
The Secretary of State may make a determination under subsection (5) only if one or both of the following conditions is satisfied.
The first condition is that the Secretary of State believes on reasonable grounds that P would, if released, pose a significant risk to members of the public of serious harm occasioned by the commission of any of the following offences—
murder;
an offence listed in Schedule 18 to the Sentencing Code.
The second condition is that, after P is recalled, the Secretary of State receives information—
that results in a determination that P may be at risk of involvement in terrorism-related activity (within the meaning of section 325(9)),
that results in the Secretary of State considering that P may be at risk of involvement in foreign power threat activity within the meaning of Part 1 of the National Security Act 2023 (see section 33 of that Act),
that results in a determination that, if released at the end of the section 255BA automatic release period, P would be managed at level 2 or 3, as specified in guidance for the time being issued under section 325(8), by a responsible authority under arrangements made under that section (arrangements for assessing etc risks posed by certain offenders), or
that P has been charged with an offence.
Where this subsection applies—
if the Secretary of State has already informed P that P will be released under this section, the Secretary of State must inform P that P will not be released under this section, and
P is to be dealt with in accordance with section 255C (and accordingly not released under this section).
The Secretary of State may by order amend either or both of paragraphs (a) and (b)(i) of subsection (2) so as to alter the period for the time being specified in those paragraphs.
For the purposes of subsection (2), a person returns to custody when the person, having been recalled, is detained (whether or not in prison) in pursuance of the sentence.
This section applies to a prisoner (“P”)—
who is a relevant young offender and—
whose case was referred to the Board under section 244ZB, or
who is not a relevant young offender and—
who is not a prisoner eligible for automatic release at the end of the section 255BA automatic release period (see section 255A(8)), or
who the Secretary of State has determined should not be released at the end of the section 255BA automatic release period (see section 255BA(5)).
The Secretary of State may, at any time after P is returned to prison, release P again on licence under this Chapter.
The Secretary of State must not release P under subsection (2) unless the Secretary of State is satisfied that it is not necessary for the protection of the public that P should remain in prison.
The Secretary of State must refer P's case to the Board—
if P makes representations under section 254(2) before the end of the period of 28 days beginning with the date on which P returns to custody, on the making of those representations, or
if, at the end of that period, P has not been released under subsection (2) and has not made such representations, at that time.
The Board must not give a direction for P’s release on a reference under subsection (4) unless the Board is satisfied that it is not necessary for the protection of the public that P should remain in prison.
Where on a reference under subsection (4) the Board directs P's... release on licence under this Chapter, the Secretary of State must give effect to the direction.
Where this subsection applies—
if P is released under this section before that date, P's licence must include a curfew condition complying with section 253, and
P is not to be so released (despite subsection (5)) unless the Secretary of State is satisfied that arrangements are in place to enable that condition to be complied with.
For the purposes of this section, P returns to custody when P, having been recalled, is detained (whether or not in prison) in pursuance of the sentence.
In this section, “relevant young offender” has the same meaning as in section 255A.
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This section applies to a person if—
there has been a previous reference of the person’s case to the Board under section 255C(4) or this section, and
the person has not been released.
The Secretary of State must refer the person’s case back to the Board not later than the first anniversary of the most recent determination by the Board not to release the person (the “review date”).
Subsection (1A) does not apply where the review date is 13 months or less before the date on which the person is required to be released by the Secretary of State.
The Secretary of State may, at any time before the review date, refer the person's case to the Board.
The Board may at any time recommend to the Secretary of State that the person’s case be referred under subsection (2).
The Board must not give a direction for a person’s release on a reference under subsection (1A) or (2) unless the Board is satisfied that it is not necessary for the protection of the public that the person should remain in prison.
Where on a reference under subsection (1A) or (2) the Board directs a person’s release on licence under this Chapter, the Secretary of State must give effect to the direction.
This section applies where a person (“the offender”) is serving two or more terms of imprisonment.
to refer the offender’s case to the Board, or
to release the offender,
If the offender is released on licence under section 255B, 255BA, 255C or 256A, the offender is to be on licence—
until the last date on which the offender is required to be on licence in respect of any of the terms, and
subject to such conditions as are required by this Chapter in respect of any of the sentences.
This section applies to a determinate sentence of detention under any of the following provisions as it applies to a term of imprisonment—
The Secretary of State may by order change—
the test to be applied by the Secretary of State in determining under subsection (5) of section 255BA that a person should not be released at the end of the section 255BA automatic release period;
An order under subsection (1) may in particular—
apply to a person recalled before the day on which the order comes into force (as well as to a person recalled on or after that day);
amend this Chapter.
Referral of release decisions to High Court
This section applies where—
a prisoner is serving a fixed-term sentence imposed in respect of an offence specified or described in section 256AZBB, and
the Board directs the prisoner’s release under a provision mentioned in the second column of the table in section 237B.
The Secretary of State may direct the Board to refer the prisoner’s case to the High Court if the Secretary of State considers that—
the release of the prisoner would be likely to undermine public confidence in the parole system, and
if the case were referred, the High Court might not be satisfied that it is no longer necessary for the protection of the public that the prisoner should be confined (see section 256AZBC(1)).
The requirement for the Secretary of State to give effect to the Board’s direction to release the prisoner is suspended—
during such period, beginning with the day on which the direction is given, as the Secretary of State reasonably requires to determine whether to direct the Board to refer the prisoner’s case to the High Court under this section, and
if the Secretary of State gives such a direction, pending determination of the reference under section 256AZBC(1).
Where the Secretary of State gives a direction under subsection (2), the Secretary of State must notify the prisoner of the direction and the reasons for giving it.
This section applies in relation to a prisoner whose sentence was imposed before, as well as after, this section comes into force.
But nothing in this section affects the duty of the Secretary of State to release a prisoner whose release has been directed by the Board before this section comes into force.
The offences specified or described in this section (for the purposes of section 256AZBA) are—
an offence under section 5 of the Domestic Violence, Crime and Victims Act 2004, where a child has died as a result of the prisoner’s unlawful act;
an offence specified in any of paragraphs 41 to 43 of Schedule 18 to the Sentencing Code (specified terrorism offences other than inchoate offences);
an offence that is not an inchoate offence and was determined to have a terrorist connection, within the meaning given by section 247A(7A);
an offence under section 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 (rape);
an offence under section 5 of that Act (rape of a child under 13);
an offence under section 1 of the Sexual Offences (Scotland) Act 2009 (asp 9)(rape);
an offence under section 18 of that Act (rape of a young child);
an offence under Article 5 of the Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 (S.I. 2008/1769 (N.I. 2))(rape);
an offence under Article 12 of that Order (rape of a child under 13);
an offence that—
is abolished, and
would have constituted an offence referred to in paragraphs (a) to (i) if committed on or after the date on which it was abolished.
A sentence in respect of a service offence is to be treated for the purposes of section 256AZBA as if it were a sentence in respect of the corresponding offence.
In subsection (2)—
“service offence” means an offence under—
section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006,
section 70 of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force Act 1955, or
section 42 of the Naval Discipline Act 1957;
“corresponding offence” means—
in relation to an offence under section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006, the corresponding offence under the law of England and Wales within the meaning of that section;
in relation to an offence under section 70 of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force Act 1955, the corresponding civil offence within the meaning of that Act;
in relation to an offence under section 42 of the Naval Discipline Act 1957, the civil offence within the meaning of that section.
On a referral of a prisoner’s case under section 256AZBA, the High Court—
must, if satisfied that it is no longer necessary for the protection of the public that the prisoner should be confined, make an order requiring the Secretary of State to give effect to the Board’s direction to release the prisoner on licence;
otherwise, must make an order quashing the direction.
An order under subsection (1)(a) may include directions as to the conditions to be included in the prisoner’s licence on release.
An order under subsection (1)(b) has effect as if the prisoner’s case were disposed of by the Board on the date on which the order was made.
If the decision referred to the High Court is a decision under section 255B(4A) (automatic release), subsection (1)(a) has effect as if for the words “be confined” there were substituted“remain in prison until the end of the period mentioned in section 255B(1)(b)”.
Release at the direction of the Board
This section applies where the Board directs the release of a person on licence under this Chapter(including where the High Court makes an order under section 256AZBC(1)(a) requiring the Secretary of State to give effect to such a direction).
The Secretary of State must give effect to the direction of the Parole Board as soon as is reasonably practicable in all the circumstances including, in particular, the need to make arrangements in connection with any conditions that are to be included in the person’s licence under this Chapter.
The duty under subsection (2) is subject to—
section 256AZBA(3) (suspension of duty to release prisoner pending referral to High Court or decision whether to refer), and
provision made pursuant to section 239(5C)(b).
Supervision of certain young offenders after release
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This section applies where a person (“the offender”) is released under this Chapter if—
the person is, at the time of the release, serving a sentence of detention under section 250 of the Sentencing Code which is for a term of less than 12 months, and
the person is aged under 18 on the last day of the requisite custodial period (as defined in section 243A(3)).
This section also applies where a person (“the offender”) is released under this Chapter if—
the sentence was imposed in respect of an offence committed before the day on which section 1 of the Offender Rehabilitation Act 2014 came into force.
But this section does not apply where a person (“the offender”) is released from a sentence in respect of which section 247A applied to the offender.
The offender is to be under the supervision of—
an officer of a provider of probation services,
a social worker of a local authority, or
... a member of the youth offending team.
Where the supervision is to be provided by an officer of a provider of probation services, the officer must be an officer acting in the local justice area in which the offender resides for the time being.
Where the supervision is to be provided by—the social worker or member must be a social worker of, or a member of a youth offending team established by, the local authority within whose area the offender resides for the time being.
a social worker of a local authority, or
a member of a youth offending team,
The supervision period begins on the offender's release and ends three months later (whether or not the offender is detained under section 256C or otherwise during that period).
During the supervision period, the offender must comply with such requirements, if any, as may for the time being be specified in a notice from the Secretary of State.
The requirements that may be specified in a notice under subsection (6) include—
requirements to submit to electronic monitoring of the offender's compliance with any other requirements specified in the notice;
requirements to submit to electronic monitoring of the offender's whereabouts (otherwise than for the purpose of securing compliance with requirements specified in the notice);
where the offender is aged 18 or over—
drug testing requirements (see section 256D);
drug appointment requirements (see section 256E).
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The Secretary of State may make rules about the requirements that may be imposed by virtue of subsection (7)(a) or (b).
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issue a summons requiring the offender to appear at the place and time specified in the summons, or
if the information is in writing and on oath, issue a warrant for the offender's arrest.
Any summons or warrant issued under this section must direct the offender to appear or be brought—
before a court acting for the local justice area in which the offender resides, or
if it is not known where the offender resides, before a court acting for same local justice area as the justice who issued the summons or warrant.
Where the offender does not appear in answer to a summons issued under subsection (1)(a), the court may issue a warrant for the offender's arrest.
If it is proved to the satisfaction of the court that the offender has failed to comply with requirements under section 256B(6), the court may—
order the offender to be detained, in prison or such youth detention accommodation as the Secretary of State may determine, for such period, not exceeding 30 days, as the court may specify, or
order the offender to pay a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale.
An offender detained in pursuance of an order under subsection (4)(a) is to be regarded as being in legal custody.
A fine imposed under subsection (4)(b) is to be treated, for the purposes of any enactment, as being a sum adjudged to be paid by a conviction.
An offender may appeal to the Crown Court against any order made under subsection (4)(a) or (b).
In this section “court” means—
if the offender has attained the age of 18 years at the date of release, a magistrates' court other than a youth court;
if the offender is under the age of 18 years at the date of release, a youth court.
“Drug testing requirement”, in relation to an offender subject to supervision under section 256B, means a requirement that, when instructed to do so by the supervisor, the offender provide a sample mentioned in the instruction for the purpose of ascertaining whether the offender has a specified Class A drug or a specified Class B drug in his or her body.
A drug testing requirement may be imposed on an offender subject to supervision under section 256B only if—
the Secretary of State is satisfied of the matters in subsection (3), and
the requirement is being imposed for the purpose of determining whether the offender is complying with any other supervision requirement.
Those matters are—
that the misuse by the offender of a specified class A drug or a specified class B drug caused or contributed to an offence of which the offender has been convicted or is likely to cause or contribute to the commission of further offences by the offender, and
that the offender is dependent on, or has a propensity to misuse, a specified class A drug or a specified class B drug.
An instruction given for the purpose of a drug testing requirement must be given in accordance with guidance given from time to time by the Secretary of State.
The Secretary of State may make rules regulating the provision of samples in accordance with such an instruction.
In this section, “specified Class A drug” and “specified Class B drug” have the same meaning as in Part 3 of the Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000.
“Drug appointment requirement”, in relation to an offender subject to supervision under section 256B, means a requirement that the offender, in accordance with instructions given by the supervisor, attend appointments with a view to addressing the offender's dependency on, or propensity to misuse, a controlled drug.
A drug appointment requirement may be imposed on an offender subject to supervision under section 256B only if—
the supervisor has recommended to the Secretary of State that such a requirement be imposed on the offender, and
the Secretary of State is satisfied of the matters in subsection (3).
Those matters are—
that the misuse by the offender of a controlled drug caused or contributed to an offence of which the offender has been convicted or is likely to cause or contribute to the commission of further offences by the offender,
that the offender is dependent on, or has a propensity to misuse, a controlled drug,
that the dependency or propensity requires, and may be susceptible to, treatment, and
that arrangements have been made, or can be made, for the offender to have treatment.
The requirement must specify—
the person with whom the offender is to meet or under whose direction the appointments are to take place, and
where the appointments are to take place.
The person specified under subsection (4)(a) must be a person who has the necessary qualifications or experience.
The only instructions that the supervisor may give for the purposes of the requirement are instructions as to—
the duration of each appointment, and
when each appointment is to take place.
For the purposes of this section, references to a requirement to attend an appointment do not include a requirement to submit to treatment.
In this section, “controlled drug” has the same meaning as in the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971.
Additional days
Prison rules, that is to say, rules made under section 47 of the Prison Act 1952 (c. 52), may include provision for the award of additional days—who (in either case) are guilty of disciplinary offences.
to fixed-term prisoners, or
conditionally on their subsequently becoming such prisoners, to persons on remand,
Where additional days are awarded to a fixed-term prisoner, or to a person on remand who subsequently becomes such a prisoner, and are not remitted in accordance with prison rules—is extended by the aggregate of those additional days.
any period which he must serve before becoming entitled to or eligible for release under this Chapter,
any period which he must serve before he can be removed from prison under section 260, and
any period for which a licence granted to him under this Chapter remains in force,
Fine defaulters and contemnors
This section applies in relation to a person committed to prison—
in default of payment of a sum adjudged to be paid by a conviction, or
for contempt of court or any kindred offence.
As soon as a person to whom this section applies has served one-half of the term for which he was committed, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release him unconditionally.
Subsection (2) is subject to paragraph 35 of Schedule 20B (transitional cases).
Subsection (2) does not apply to a person within subsection (1)(a) if the sum in question is a sum of more than £10 million ordered to be paid under a confiscation order made under Part 2 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.
The Secretary of State may by order amend the amount for the time being specified in subsection (2B).
Where a person to whom this section applies is also serving one or more sentences of imprisonment, nothing in this section or in paragraph 35 of Schedule 20B requires the Secretary of State to release him until he is also required to release him in respect of that sentence or each of those sentences.
The Secretary of State may at any time release unconditionally a person to whom this section applies if he is satisfied that exceptional circumstances exist which justify the person’s release on compassionate grounds.
Persons liable to removal from the United Kingdom
For the purposes of this Chapter a person is liable to removal from the United Kingdom if—
he is liable to deportation under section 3(5) of the Immigration Act 1971 (c. 77) and has been notified of a decision to make a deportation order against him,
he is liable to deportation under section 3(6) of that Act,
he has been notified of a decision to refuse him leave to enter the United Kingdom,
he is an illegal entrant within the meaning of section 33(1) of that Act, or
he is liable to removal under section 10 of the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999 (c. 33).
For the purposes of this Chapter, to be “eligible for removal from the United Kingdom” a person must show, to the satisfaction of the Secretary of State, that the condition in subsection (2) is met.
The condition is that the person has the settled intention of residing permanently outside the United Kingdom if removed from prison under section 260.
The person must not be one who is liable to removal from the United Kingdom.
Where a fixed-term prisoner is liable to removal from the United Kingdom, the Secretary of State may remove the prisoner from prison under this section at any time after the prisoner has served the minimum pre-removal custodial period (whether or not the Board has directed the prisoner’s release under this Chapter).
The minimum pre-removal custodial period is the longer of—
30%of the requisite custodial period, and
the requisite custodial period less 4 years.
Subsection (1) does do not apply in relation to a prisoner to whom section 247A applies.
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A prisoner removed from prison under this section—
is so removed only for the purpose of enabling the Secretary of State to remove him from the United Kingdom under powers conferred by—
Schedule 2 or 3 to the Immigration Act 1971, or
section 10 of the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999 (c. 33), and
so long as remaining in the United Kingdom, and in the event of a return to the United Kingdom after removal, is liable to be detained in pursuance of his sentence.
Where a person has been removed from prison under this section, a day on which the person has not spent any part of the day in prison or otherwise detained in pursuance of their sentence is not, unless the Secretary of State otherwise directs, to be included—
when determining for the purposes of any provision of this Chapter how much of their sentence they have (or would have) served, or
when determining for the purposes of section 244ZC(2), 244A(2)(b) or 246A(4)(b) the date of an anniversary of a disposal of a reference of the person’s case to the Board (so that the anniversary is treated as falling x days after the actual anniversary, where x is the number of days on which the person has not spent any part of the day in prison or otherwise detained in pursuance of their sentence).
Where—the reference lapses upon the person’s removal from the United Kingdom (and paragraph 8 of Schedule 19B applies in the event of their return).
before a prisoner’s removal from prison under this section their case had been referred to the Board under section 244ZB(3), 244ZC(2), 244A(2) or 246A(4), and
the person is removed from the United Kingdom before the Board has disposed of the reference,
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The Secretary of State may by order—
amend the fraction for the time being specified in subsection (2)(a);
amend the time period for the time being specified in subsection (2)(b).
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Paragraphs 36 and 37 of Schedule 20B (transitional cases) make further provision about early removal of certain prisoners.
Subsection (2C) does not affect the continued liability to detention under subsection (4)(b) of a prisoner removed from prison under this section before subsection (2C) came into force and in such a case—
the “requisite custodial period” in subsection (4)(b) has the meaning given by section 247A(8), and
subsection (5) is to be read as including reference to section 247A.
Where a person—this Chapter applies to the person with the modifications set out in Schedule 19B.
has been removed from the United Kingdom following that removal from prison, and
returns to the United Kingdom,
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Consecutive or concurrent terms
This section applies where—
a person (“the offender”) has been sentenced . . . to two or more terms of imprisonment which are wholly or partly concurrent, and
the sentences were passed on the same occasion or, where they were passed on different occasions, the person has not been released under this Chapter at any time during the period beginning with the first and ending with the last of those occasions.
Where this section applies—
nothing in this Chapter requires the Secretary of State to release the offender in respect of any of the terms unless and until he is required to release him in respect of each of the others,
nothing in this Chapter requires the Secretary of State to refer the offender’s case to the Board in respect of any of the terms unless and until the Secretary of State is required either—in respect of each of the others,
to refer the offender’s case to the Board, or
to release the offender,
the offender's release is to be unconditional if section 243A so requires in respect of each of the sentences (and in any other case is to be on licence),
section 246 does not authorise the Secretary of State to release him on licence under that section in respect of any of the terms unless and until that section authorises the Secretary of State to do so in respect of each of the others to which that section applies,
on and after his release under this Chapter (unless that release is unconditional) the offender is to be on licence—
until the last date on which the offender is required to be on licence in respect of any of the terms, and
subject to such conditions as are required by this Chapter in respect of any of the sentences.
Where this section applies, nothing in section 260 authorises the Secretary of State to remove the offender from prison in respect of any of the terms unless and until that section authorises the Secretary of State to do so in respect of each of the others.
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This section is subject to paragraphs 21, 31 and 32 of Schedule 20B (transitional cases).
This section applies where—
a person (“the offender”) has been sentenced to two or more terms of imprisonment which are to be served consecutively on each other, and
the sentences were passed on the same occasion or, where they were passed on different occasions, the person has not been released under this Chapter at any time during the period beginning with the first and ending with the last of those occasions, ...
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Subsection (2B) applies if each of the terms of imprisonment is subject to initial automatic release.
Nothing in this Chapter requires the Secretary of State to release the offender until the offender has served a period equal to the aggregate of the length of the minimum custodial periods in each of the terms.
Subsections (2D) and (2E) apply if at least one of the terms of imprisonment is subject to initial Parole Board referral.
Nothing in this Chapter requires the Secretary of State to refer the offender’s case to the Board until the offender has served a period equal to the aggregate length of the minimum custodial periods in each of the terms.
Nothing in this Chapter requires the Secretary of State to release the offender until—
the Board has directed the release of the offender, or
the offender has served a period equal to the aggregate length of—
the minimum custodial periods in each of the terms (if any) that is subject to initial automatic release, and
the maximum custodial periods in each of the terms that is subject to initial Parole Board referral.
For the purposes of subsections (2A) to (2E)—
a term of imprisonment is “subject to initial automatic release” if it is a sentence in respect of which—
section 247A applies, but subsections (3) to (5) of that section do not apply, to the offender;
a term of imprisonment is “subject to initial Parole Board referral” if it is a sentence in respect of which—
section 244ZC, 244A, 246A(3) to (7) or 247A(3) to (5) applies to the offender, or
a notice under section 244ZB(4) is in force.
The offender's release under this Chapter is to be unconditional if—but in any other case is to be on licence.
the aggregate length of the terms of imprisonment is less than 12 months, and
section 243A so requires in respect of each of the sentences,
If the offender is released on licence under this Chapter—
the offender is to be on licence, on and after the release, until the offender would, but for the release, have served a term equal in length to the aggregate length of the terms of imprisonment (but see section 264B);
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When the offender is released under this Chapter (whether unconditionally or on licence), the offender is to be subject to supervision requirements under section 256B if that section so requires in respect of one or more of the sentences.
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In this section “minimum custodial period”, except if subsection (6A) applies, means—
in relation to a sentence imposed under section 236A or under section 265 or 278 of the Sentencing Code before the day on which section 131 of the Police, Crime, Sentencing and Courts Act 2022 came into force, one-half of the appropriate custodial term determined by the court under that section, and
in relation to a sentence imposed under section 252A of the Sentencing Code, two-thirds of the appropriate custodial term determined by the court under that section,
in relation to a sentence in respect of which section 244ZA applies to the offender, two-thirds of the sentence,
in relation to any other sentence, one-half of the sentence.
In this section “minimum custodial period”, in the case of a sentence imposed on a person to whom section 247A applies, means—
in relation to a sentence within subsection (2A) of that section, the whole of the “appropriate custodial term” within the meaning of that section (see subsection (8) of that section),
in relation to an extended sentence(not being one to which paragraph (za) applies) imposed under section 226A, 226B, 227 or 228 of this Act or section 254, 266 or 279 of the Sentencing Code, or a sentence imposed under section 236A of this Act or section 252A, 265 or 278 of that Code, two-thirds of the appropriate custodial term determined by the court under that section;
in relation to any other sentence, two-thirds of the sentence.
In this section “maximum custodial period” means—
in relation to any other sentence, the term of the sentence.
This section is subject to paragraphs 21, 22, 31, 32 and 33 of Schedule 20B (transitional cases).
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This section applies where, by virtue of section 237(4) of the Sentencing Code or section 106A(3)(b) of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000, a detention and training order made in the case of a person (“the offender”) who is subject to a relevant sentence of detention is to take effect at the time when the offender would otherwise be released under this Chapter.
In a case where the detention and training order was made on or after the day on which section 159 of the Police, Crime, Sentencing and Courts Act 2022 came into force, section 246(1)(a) is to be read as if, instead of conferring a power to release the offender, it conferred a power to determine that the Secretary of State would, but for the detention and training order, have directed the offender’s release under that section.
Any direction in respect of the offender by the Parole Board under—is to be expressed as a direction that the Board would, but for the detention and training order, have directed the offender's release under that section or paragraph.
subsection (5)(b) of section 246A,
subsection (4)(b) of section 247A, or
sub-paragraph (3) of paragraph 15 of Schedule 20B,
In this section—
references to a detention and training order include an order made under section 211 of the Armed Forces Act 2006, and
“relevant sentence of detention” has the meaning given by section 248(4) of the Sentencing Code.
This section applies in a case in which section 264 applies where—
the offender is released on licence under this Chapter,
the aggregate length of the terms of imprisonment mentioned in section 264(1)(a) is less than 12 months, and
those terms include one or more terms of imprisonment (“short transitional terms”) which were imposed in respect of an offence committed before the day on which section 1 of the Offender Rehabilitation Act 2014 came into force, as well as one or more terms imposed in respect of an offence committed on or after that day.
The offender is to be on licence until the offender would, but for the release, have served a term equal in length to the aggregate of—
the custodial period in relation to each of the short transitional terms, and
the full length of each of the other terms.
In this section “custodial period” has the same meaning as in section 264.
Restriction on consecutive sentences for released prisoners
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Drug testing requirements
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Supplemental
The Secretary of State may by order provide that any reference in section 243A(3)(a), section 244(3)(a), section 247(2) or section 264(6)(d) to a particular proportion of a prisoner’s sentence is to be read as a reference to such other proportion of a prisoner’s sentence as may be specified in the order.
Schedule 20A (which modifies certain provisions of this Chapter as they apply to persons serving a sentence for an offence committed before 4 April 2005) has effect.
Schedule 20B (which modifies this Chapter so as to restate, with minor amendments, the effect of transitional provisions relating to the coming into force of this Chapter) has effect.
This section applies where a fixed-term prisoner is also serving one or more sentences by virtue of which the life sentence provisions apply to the offender.
Nothing in this Chapter requires the Secretary of State to release the prisoner unless the Secretary of State is also required by the life sentence provisions to release the prisoner.
Nothing in this Chapter requires the Secretary of State to refer the prisoner’s case to the Board unless the Secretary of State is also required by the life sentence provisions to—
refer the prisoner’s case to the Board, or
release the prisoner.
The reference in subsection (3)(a) to a requirement of the Secretary of State to refer a prisoner’s case to the Board does not include a requirement to do so under section 31A(3) of the 1997 Act.
The fact that the prisoner is also serving a fixed-term sentence is to be ignored in determining, for the purposes of subsections (2) and (3), what the life sentence provisions require.
In this section “the life sentence provisions” means Chapter 2 of Part 2 of the 1997 Act.
In this Chapter —“the 1997 Act” means the Crime (Sentences) Act 1997 (c. 43);“the Board” means the Parole Board;“fixed-term prisoner” and “fixed-term sentence” have the meaning given by section 237(1) (as extended by section 237(1B));. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ....“prison” and “prisoner” are to be read in accordance with section 237(2);......“the supervisor”—... in relation to an offender subject to supervision requirements under section 256B, means the person who provides supervision under that section;. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
In this Chapter, “the requisite custodial period” means(except where it has the meaning given by section 247A(8))—
in relation to a prisoner whose case has been referred to the Parole Board under section 244ZB, the requisite custodial period for the purposes of section 244ZC;
For the purposes of sections 243A(1A),... 256B(1A) and 264B(1), where an offence is found to have been committed over a period of 2 or more days, or at some time during a period of 2 or more days, it must be taken to have been committed on the last of those days.
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In section 9 of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19) (appeal against sentence following conviction on indictment), after subsection (1) there is inserted—.
In section 8 of the Courts-Martial (Appeals) Act 1968 (c. 20) (right of appeal from court-martial to Courts-Martial Appeal Court) after subsection (1) there is inserted—.
In section 36 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 (c. 33) (reviews of sentencing) after subsection (3) there is inserted—.
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The Secretary of State must refer the case of any transferred life prisoner to the High Court for the making of one or more relevant orders.
In subsection (1) “transferred life prisoner” means a person -
on whom a court in a country or territory outside the British Islands has imposed one or more sentences of imprisonment or detention for an indeterminate period, and
who has been transferred to England and Wales after the commencement of this section in pursuance of—there to serve his sentence or sentences or the remainder of his sentence or sentences.
an order made by the Secretary of State under section 2 of the Colonial Prisoners Removal Act 1884 (c. 31), or
a warrant issued by the Secretary of State under the Repatriation of Prisoners Act 1984 (c. 47),
In subsection (1) “a relevant order” means a minimum term order or a whole life order under section 321 of the Sentencing Code.
In section 34(1) of the Crime (Sentences) Act 1997 (c. 43) (meaning of “life prisoner” in Chapter 2 of Part 2 of that Act) at the end there is inserted “ and includes a transferred life prisoner as defined by section 273 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”.
The reference in subsection (2)(b) above to a person who has been transferred to England and Wales in pursuance of a warrant issued under the Repatriation of Prisoners Act 1984 includes a reference to a person who is detained in England and Wales in pursuance of a warrant under section 4A of that Act (warrant transferring responsibility for detention and release of offender).
A reference to the High Court under section 273 is to be determined by a single judge of that court without an oral hearing.
A person in respect of whom a reference has been made under section 273 may with the leave of the Court of Appeal appeal to the Court of Appeal against the decision of the High Court on the reference.
Section 1(1) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960 (c. 65) (appeal to Supreme Court from decision of High Court in a criminal cause or matter) and section 18(1)(a) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54) (exclusion of appeal from High Court to Court of Appeal in a criminal cause or matter) do not apply in relation to a decision to which subsection (3) applies.
The jurisdiction conferred on the Court of Appeal by subsection (3) is to be exercised by the criminal division of that court.
Section 33(3) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19) (limitation on appeal from criminal division of Court of Appeal) does not prevent an appeal to the Supreme Court under this section.
In relation to appeals to the Court of Appeal or the Supreme Court under this section, the Secretary of State may make an order containing provision corresponding to any provision in the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (subject to any specified modifications).
Section 28 of the Crime (Sentences) Act 1997 (c. 43) (duty to release certain life prisoners) is amended as follows.
For subsection (1A) there is substituted—
In subsection (1B)(a)—
for the words from the beginning to “applies” there is substituted “ this section does not apply to him ”, and
for the words from “such an order” to “appropriate stage” there is substituted “ a minimum term order has been made in respect of each of those sentences ”.
After subsection (8) there is inserted—.
Schedule 22 (which relates to the effect in transitional cases of mandatory life sentences) shall have effect.
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Deferment of sentence
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Power to include drug treatment and testing requirement in certain orders in respect of young offenders
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Alteration of penalties for offences
The summary offences listed in Schedule 25 are no longer punishable with imprisonment.
Schedule 26 (which contains amendments increasing the maximum term of imprisonment for certain summary offences from 4 months or less to 51 weeks) shall have effect.
This section does not affect the penalty for any offence committed before the commencement of this section.
Subsection (2) applies to any summary offence which—
is an offence under a relevant enactment,
is punishable with a maximum term of imprisonment of five months or less, and
The Secretary of State may by order amend any relevant enactment so as to—
provide that any summary offence to which this subsection applies is no longer punishable with imprisonment, or
increase to 51 weeks the maximum term of imprisonment to which a person is liable on conviction of the offence.
An order under subsection (2) may make such supplementary, incidental or consequential provision as the Secretary of State considers necessary or expedient, including provision amending any relevant enactment.
Subsection (5) applies to any summary offence which—
is an offence under a relevant enactment, and
is punishable with a maximum term of imprisonment of six months.
The maximum term of imprisonment to which a person is liable on conviction of an offence to which this subsection applies is, by virtue of this subsection, 51 weeks (and the relevant enactment in question is to be read as if it had been amended accordingly).
Neither of the following—affects the penalty for any offence committed before the commencement of that order or subsection (as the case may be).
an order under subsection (2), or
subsection (5),
In this section and section 282 “relevant enactment” means any enactment contained in—
an Act passed before or in the same Session as this Act, or
any subordinate legislation made before the passing of this Act.
In subsection (7) “subordinate legislation” has the same meaning as in the Interpretation Act 1978 (c. 30).
In section 32 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43) (penalties on summary conviction for offences triable either way) in subsection (1) (offences listed in Schedule 1 to that Act) for “not exceeding 6 months” there is substituted “ not exceeding 12 months ”.
Subsection (3) applies to any offence triable either way which—
is an offence under a relevant enactment,
is punishable with imprisonment on summary conviction, and
is not listed in Schedule 1 to the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980.
The ... term of imprisonment to which a person is liable on summary conviction of an offence to which this subsection applies is by virtue of this subsection a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court (and the relevant enactment in question is to be read as if it had been amended accordingly).
Nothing in this section affects the penalty for any offence committed before the commencement of this section.
The Secretary of State may by order, in accordance with subsection (2) ..., amend any relevant enactment which confers a power (however framed or worded) by subordinate legislation to make a person—
as regards a summary offence, liable on conviction to a term of imprisonment;
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An order made by virtue of paragraph (a) of subsection (1) may amend the relevant enactment in question so as to—
restrict the power so that a person may no longer be made liable on conviction of a summary offence to a term of imprisonment, or
increase to 51 weeks the maximum term of imprisonment to which a person may be made liable on conviction of a summary offence under the power.
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Schedule 27 (which amends the maximum penalties which may be imposed by virtue of certain enabling powers) shall have effect.
The power conferred by subsection (1) shall not apply to the enactments amended under Schedule 27.
An order under subsection (1) may make such supplementary, incidental or consequential provision as the Secretary of State considers necessary or expedient, including provision amending any relevant enactment.
None of the following—affects the penalty for any offence committed before the commencement of that order or Schedule (as the case may be).
an order under subsection (1), or
Schedule 27,
In subsection (1) “subordinate legislation” has the same meaning as in the Interpretation Act 1978 (c. 30).
In this section “relevant enactment” means any enactment contained in an Act passed before or in the same Session as this Act.
Schedule 28 (increase in penalties for certain drug-related offences) shall have effect.
That Schedule does not affect the penalty for any offence committed before the commencement of that Schedule.
In section 12A of the Theft Act 1968 (c. 60) (aggravated vehicle-taking), in subsection (4), for “five years” there is substituted “ fourteen years ”.
Part 1 of Schedule 2 to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 (c. 53) (prosecution and punishment of offences) is amended in accordance with subsections (3) and (4).
In the entry relating to section 1 of the Road Traffic Act 1988 (c. 52) (causing death by dangerous driving), in column 4, for “10 years” there is substituted “ 14 years ”.
In the entry relating to section 3A of that Act (causing death by careless driving when under influence of drink or drugs), in column 4, for “10 years” there is substituted “ 14 years ”.
Part I of Schedule 1 to the Road Traffic Offenders (Northern Ireland) Order 1996 (S.I. 1996/1320 (N.I. 10)) (prosecution and punishment of offences) is amended in accordance with subsections (6) and (7).
In the entry relating to Article 9 of the Road Traffic (Northern Ireland) Order 1995 (S.I. 1995/2994 (N.I. 18)) (causing death or grievous bodily injury by dangerous driving), in column 4, for “10 years” there is substituted “ 14 years ”.
In the entry relating to Article 14 of that Order (causing death or grievous bodily injury by careless driving when under the influence of drink or drugs), in column 4, for “10 years” there is substituted “ 14 years ”.
This section does not affect the penalty for any offence committed before the commencement of this section.
In Part 1 of Schedule 2 to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 (c. 53) (prosecution and punishment of offences), in the entry relating to section 174 of the Road Traffic Act 1988 (c. 52) (false statements and withholding material information), for columns (3) and (4) there is substituted—
Section 282(3) (increase in maximum term that may be imposed on summary conviction of offence triable either way) has effect in relation to the entry amended by subsection (1) as it has effect in relation to any other enactment contained in an Act passed before this Act.
This section does not apply in relation to any offence committed before the commencement of this section.
Firearms offences
After section 51 of the Firearms Act 1968 (c. 27) there is inserted the following section—
In Part 1 of Schedule 6 to the Firearms Act 1968 (c. 27) (prosecution and punishment of offences) for the entries relating to offences under section 5(1) (possessing or distributing prohibited weapons or ammunition) and section 5(1A) (possessing or distributing other prohibited weapons) there is substituted—
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The Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46) is amended as follows.
In section 49(3) (children’s hearing for purpose of obtaining advice as to treatment of child), at the end there is added “ except that where the circumstances are such as are mentioned in paragraphs (a) and (b) of section 51A(1) of the Firearms Act 1968 it shall itself dispose of the case ”.
In section 208 (detention of children convicted on indictment), the existing provisions become subsection (1); and after that subsection there is added—.
The Secretary of State may by order—
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amend section 29(3)(a) of the Violent Crime Reduction Act 2006 by substituting for the word “16” the word 18,
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amend subsection (3) of section 49 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 by repealing the exception to that subsection,
repeal section 208(2) of that Act, and
make such other provision as he considers necessary or expedient in consequence of, or in connection with, the provision made by virtue of paragraphs (a) to (d).
The provision that may be made by virtue of subsection (1)(e) includes, in particular, provision amending or repealing any provision of an Act (whenever passed), including any provision of this Act.
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The Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2) is amended as follows.
In section 50 (penalty for improper importation of goods), for subsection (5A) there is substituted—
In section 68 (offences in relation to exportation of prohibited or restricted goods) for subsection (4A) there is substituted—
In section 170 (penalty for fraudulent evasion of duty, etc), for subsection (4A) there is substituted—
This section does not affect the penalty for any offence committed before the commencement of this section.
Offenders transferred to mental hospital
Section 50 of the Mental Health Act 1983 (c. 20) (further provisions as to prisoners under sentence) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1), for “the expiration of that person’s sentence” there is substituted “ his release date ”.
For subsections (2) and (3) there is substituted—.
In section 74 of the Mental Health Act 1983 (restricted patients subject to restriction directions) after subsection (5) there is inserted—
Article 56 of the Mental Health (Northern Ireland) Order 1986 (S.I. 1986/ 595 (N.I. 4)) (further provisions as to prisoners under sentence) is amended as follows.
In paragraph (1), for “the expiration of that person’s sentence” there is substituted “ his release date ”.
For paragraphs (2) and (3) there is substituted—
In Article 79 of the Mental Health (Northern Ireland) Order 1986 (restricted patients subject to restriction directions) after paragraph (5) there is inserted—.
Term of detention and training order
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Disqualification from working with children
Schedule 30 (which contains amendments of Part 2 of the Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000 (c. 43) relating to disqualification orders under that Part) shall have effect.
Fine defaulters
Subsection (2) applies in any case where, in respect of a person aged 16 or over, a magistrates' court—
has power under Part 3 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43) to issue a warrant of commitment for default in paying a sum adjudged to be paid by a conviction (other than a sum ordered to be paid under section 6 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c. 29)), or
would, but for section 227 of the Sentencing Code (restrictions on custodial sentences for persons under 18), have power to issue such a warrant for such default.
The magistrates' court may, instead of issuing a warrant of commitment or, as the case may be, proceeding under section 81 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (enforcement of fines imposed on young offender), order the person in default to comply with—
an unpaid work requirement (as defined by paragraph 1 of Schedule 9 to the Sentencing Code), or
a curfew requirement (as defined by paragraph 9 of that Schedule), ...
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In this Part “default order” means an order under subsection (2).
Section 207(5) and (6) of the Sentencing Code and paragraph 10(3) of Schedule 9 to that Code (which relate to electronic monitoring) have effect in relation to a default order as they have effect in relation to a community order.
Where a magistrates' court has power to make a default order, it may, if it thinks it expedient to do so, postpone the making of the order until such time and on such conditions (if any) as it thinks just.
The following provisions of the Sentencing Code have effect in relation to default orders as they have effect in relation to community orders, but subject to the modifications contained in Schedule 31 to this Act—sections 208(13), 210, 212 to 216, 394 and 395 (further provisions about community orders); Schedule 9 (community orders and suspended sentence orders: requirements); Schedule 10 (breach, revocation or amendment of community order); Schedule 11 (transfer of community orders to Scotland or Northern Ireland).
Where a default order has been made for default in paying any sum—
on payment of the whole sum to any person authorised to receive it, the order shall cease to have effect, and
on payment of a part of the sum to any such person, the total number of hours or days to which the order relates is to be taken to be reduced by a proportion corresponding to that which the part paid bears to the whole sum.
In calculating any reduction required by subsection (7)(b), any fraction of a day or hour is to be disregarded.
“driving licence” means a licence to drive a motor vehicle granted under Part 3 of the Road Traffic Act 1988;...
Subsection (2) applies in any case where a magistrates' court—
has power under Part 3 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43) to issue a warrant of commitment for default in paying a sum adjudged to be paid by a conviction (other than a sum ordered to be paid under section 6 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c. 29)), or
would, but for section 227 of the Sentencing Code (restrictions on custodial sentences for persons under 18), have power to issue such a warrant for such default.
The magistrates' court may, instead of issuing a warrant of commitment or, as the case may be, proceeding under section 81 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (enforcement of fines imposed on young offenders), order the person in default to be disqualified, for such period not exceeding twelve months as it thinks fit, for holding or obtaining a driving licence.
Where an order has been made under subsection (2) for default in paying any sum—
on payment of the whole sum to any person authorised to receive it, the order shall cease to have effect, and
on payment of part of the sum to any such person, the total number of weeks or months to which the order relates is to be taken to be reduced by a proportion corresponding to that which the part paid bears to the whole sum.
In calculating any reduction required by subsection (3)(b) any fraction of a week or month is to be disregarded.
The Secretary of State may by order amend subsection (2) by substituting, for the period there specified, such other period as may be specified in the order.
A court which makes an order under this section disqualifying a person for holding or obtaining a driving licence shall require him to produce—
any such licence held by him ...; or
in the case where he holds a Community licence (within the meaning of Part 3 of the Road Traffic Act 1988 (c. 52)), his Community licence ....
In this section—
Section 4 of the Summary Jurisdiction (Process) Act 1881 (c. 24) (execution of process of English and Welsh courts in Scotland) applies to any process issued by a magistrates' court under—... section 256C(1) or (3),............... as it applies to process issued under the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 by a magistrates' court.
The following enactments (which are superseded by the provisions of this Part) shall cease to have effect—
Part 2 of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 (c. 53) (early release of prisoners),
in the Crime (Sentences) Act 1997 (c. 43)—
section 33 (transferred prisoners), and
in the Sentencing Act—
Chapter 3 of Part 4 (community orders available only where offender 16 or over),
section 85 (sexual or violent offences: extension of custodial term for licence purposes),
section 109 (life sentence for second serious offence), and
Chapter 5 of Part 5 (suspended sentences).
Schedule 32 (which contains amendments related to the provisions of this Part) shall have effect.
In this Part, except where the contrary intention appears—...............“associated”, in relation to offences, is to be read in accordance with section 400 of the Sentencing Code;“attendance centre” has the meaning given by section 221(2);...“community order” has the meaning given by section 200 of the Sentencing Code;......“court” (without more), except in Chapter 7, does not include a service court, but this does not apply where a contrary intention appears from any provision of the Armed Forces Act 2006;“curfew requirement”, in relation to a community order, ... or suspended sentence order, has the meaning given by paragraph 9(1) of Schedule 9 to the Sentencing Code;“custodial sentence” has the meaning given by section 222 of the Sentencing Code;. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .“default order” has the meaning given by section 300(3);................ . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .“licence” means a licence under Chapter 6;......“the PCC(S)A 2000” means the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000;..................“sentence of imprisonment” does not include a committal—in default of payment of any sum of money, for want of sufficient distress to satisfy any sum of money, or for failure to do or abstain from doing anything required to be done or left undone , and references to sentencing an offender to imprisonment are to be read accordingly;“the Sentencing Act” means the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6);“service court” means—the Court Martial; the Summary Appeal Court; the Service Civilian Court; the Court Martial Appeal Court; or the Supreme Court on an appeal brought from the Court Martial Appeal Court;...“suspended sentence” and “suspended sentence order” have the meaning given by section 286 of the Sentencing Code;...“youth offending team” means a team established under section 39 of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (c. 37).
In this Part any reference to want of sufficient distress to satisfy a sum includes a reference to circumstances where—
there is power to use the procedure in Schedule 12 to the Tribunals, Courts and Enforcement Act 2007 to recover the sum from a person, but
it appears, after an attempt has been made to exercise the power, that the person's goods are insufficient to pay the amount outstanding (as defined by paragraph 50(3) of that Schedule).
For the purposes of any provision of this Part which requires the determination of the age of a person by the court or the Secretary of State, his age is to be taken to be that which it appears to the court or (as the case may be) the Secretary of State to be after considering any available evidence.
Any reference in this Part to an offence punishable with imprisonment is to be read without regard to any prohibition or restriction imposed by or under any Act on the imprisonment of young offenders.
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Miscellaneous
Detention of suspected terrorists
Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (detention) is amended as follows.
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After that sub-paragraph there is inserted—
Enforcement of legislation on endangered species
“the 1972 Act” means the European Communities Act 1972 (c. 68);“relevant EU instrument” means—Council Regulation 338/97/EC on the protection of species of wild fauna and flora by regulating the trade therein, and Commission Regulation 1808/01/EC on the implementation of the Council Regulation mentioned in paragraph (a).
In this section—
Regulations made under section 2(2) of the 1972 Act for the purpose of implementing any relevant EU instrument may, notwithstanding paragraph 1(1)(d) of Schedule 2 to the 1972 Act, create offences punishable on conviction on indictment with imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years.
In relation to Scotland and Northern Ireland, regulations made under section 2(2) of the 1972 Act for the purpose of implementing any relevant EU instrument may, notwithstanding paragraph 1(1)(d) of Schedule 2 to the 1972 Act, create offences punishable on summary conviction with imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months.
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with the omission of the words “in relation to Scotland and Northern Ireland”, and
as if, in relation to England and Wales, the definition of “relevant EU instrument” also included Council Directive 92/43/ EEC on the conservation of natural habitats and wild fauna and flora as amended by the Act of Accession to the European Union of Austria, Finland and Sweden and by Council Directive 97/62/ EC.
Any reference in this section to an EU instrument is to be read—
as a reference to that instrument as amended from time to time, and
where any provision of that instrument has been repealed, as including a reference to any instrument that re-enacts the repealed provision (with or without amendment).
Miscellaneous provisions about criminal proceedings
In section 12 of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43) (non-appearance of accused: plea of guilty) subsection (1)(a)(i) (which excludes offences punishable with imprisonment for term exceeding 3 months) is omitted.
In section 29 of the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 (c. 25) (power to order preparatory hearings) in subsection (1) (preparatory hearing may be held in complex or lengthy trial) after “complexity” there is inserted “ a case of such seriousness ”.
In section 7(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 (c. 38) (which sets out the purposes of preparatory hearings in fraud cases) after paragraph (d) there is inserted
In section 9(3) of that Act (determinations as to the admissibility of evidence etc) after paragraph (c) there is inserted
In section 9(11) of that Act (appeals against orders or rulings under section 9(3)(b) or (c)) for “or (c)” there is substituted “ (c) or (d) ”.
In section 29(2) of the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 (purposes of preparatory hearings in non-fraud cases) after paragraph (d) there is inserted—.
In section 31(3) of that Act (rulings as to the admissibility of evidence etc) after paragraph (b) there is inserted—
The Criminal Justice Act 1987 is amended as follows.
In paragraphs (a) and (b) of section 11(1) (restrictions on reporting) for “Great Britain” there is substituted “ the United Kingdom ”.
In section 11A (offences in connection with reporting) after subsection (3) there is inserted—
The Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 (c. 25) is amended as follows.
In paragraphs (a) and (b) of section 37(1) (restrictions on reporting) for “Great Britain” there is substituted “ the United Kingdom ”.
In section 38 (offences in connection with reporting) after subsection (3) there is inserted—
In paragraphs (a) and (b) of section 41(1) (restrictions on reporting) for “Great Britain” there is substituted “ the United Kingdom ”.
In Schedule 4 (modifications for Northern Ireland) paragraph 16 is omitted.
The Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 (c. 23) is amended as follows.
In section 16(4A) (defence costs on an appeal under section 9(11) of Criminal Justice Act 1987 (c. 38) may be met out of central funds) after “1987” there is inserted “ or section 35(1) of the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 ”.
In section 18(2) (award of costs against accused in case of dismissal of appeal under section 9(11) of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 etc) after paragraph (c) there is inserted
Section 23A of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19) (power to order investigations by Criminal Cases Review Commission) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1) after “conviction” there is inserted “ or an application for leave to appeal against conviction, ”.
In paragraph (a) of that subsection—
at the beginning there is inserted “ in the case of an appeal, ”, and
for “case”, in both places where it occurs, there is substituted “ appeal ”.
After paragraph (a) of that subsection there is inserted—.
After that subsection there is inserted—
After subsection (4) there is inserted—
Section 25A of the Criminal Appeal (Northern Ireland) Act 1980 (c. 47) (power to order investigations by Criminal Cases Review Commission) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1) after “conviction” there is inserted “ or an application for leave to appeal against conviction, ”.
In paragraph (a) of that subsection—
at the beginning there is inserted “ in the case of an appeal, ”, and
for “case”, in both places where it occurs, there is substituted “ appeal ”.
After paragraph (a) of that subsection there is inserted—.
After that subsection there is inserted—
After subsection (4) there is inserted—
Section 14 of the Criminal Appeal Act 1995 (c. 35) (further provision about references by Criminal Cases Review Commission) is amended as follows.
After subsection (4) there is inserted—
The Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19) is amended as follows.
In section 3 (power to substitute conviction of alternative offence) in subsection (1) after “an offence” there is inserted “ to which he did not plead guilty ”.
After section 3 there is inserted—
The Criminal Appeal (Northern Ireland) Act 1980 (c. 47) is amended as follows.
In section 3 (power to substitute conviction of alternative offence) in subsection (1) after “an offence” there is inserted “ to which he did not plead guilty ”.
After section 3 there is inserted—
The Courts-Martial (Appeals) Act 1968 (c. 20) is amended as follows.
In section 14 (substitution of conviction on different charge) in subsection (1) after “an offence” there is inserted “ to which he did not plead guilty ”.
After section 14 there is inserted—
The Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19) is amended as follows.
In section 10 (appeal against sentence in certain cases) for subsection (3) there is substituted—
In section 11 (supplementary provisions as to appeal against sentence) after subsection (6) there is inserted—
Outraging public decency
This section does not apply in relation to any offence committed before the commencement of this section.
Jury service
Schedule 33 (jury service) shall have effect.
Individual support orders
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Parenting orders and referral orders
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Assessing etc. risks posed by sexual or violent offenders
“relevant sexual or violent offender” and “relevant terrorist offender” have the meanings given by section 327;“responsible authority”, in relation to any area, means the chief officer of police, the local probation board for that area or (if there is no local probation board for that area) a relevant provider of probation services and the Minister of the Crown exercising functions in relation to prisons, acting jointly.
In this section—
The responsible authority for each area must establish arrangements for the purpose of assessing and managing the risks posed in that area by—
relevant sexual and violent offenders,
relevant terrorist offenders,
other persons who, by reason of offences committed by them (wherever committed), are considered by the responsible authority to be persons who may cause serious harm to the public , and
other persons who have committed offences (wherever committed) and are considered by the responsible authority to be persons who may be at risk of involvement in terrorism-related activity.
In establishing those arrangements, the responsible authority must act in co-operation with the persons specified in subsection (6); and it is the duty of those persons to co-operate in the establishment by the responsible authority of those arrangements, to the extent that such co-operation is compatible with the exercise by those persons of their relevant functions.
A person to whom subsection (4A) applies may, for the purpose described in subsection (2), disclose information to another person to whom subsection (4A) applies.
This subsection applies to—
the responsible authority,
a person specified in subsection (6), and
a person who the responsible authority considers may contribute to the achievement of the purpose described in subsection (2).
A disclosure under subsection (4) does not breach—
any obligation of confidence owed by the person making the disclosure, or
any other restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).
But subsection (4) does not authorise a disclosure of information that—
would contravene the data protection legislation (but in determining whether it would do so, the power in that subsection is to be taken into account), or
would be prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016.
Subsection (4E) applies if a person who may disclose or receive information by virtue of subsection (4) would not otherwise be a competent authority for the purposes of Part 3 of the Data Protection Act 2018 (law enforcement processing) in relation to the processing by that person of personal data by virtue of that subsection.
The person is to be treated as a competent authority for the purposes of that Part in relation to the processing by that person of personal data by virtue of subsection (4).
But subsection (4E) does not apply to an intelligence service within the meaning of Part 4 of the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 82(2) of that Act).
Subsections (4) to (4F) do not affect any power to disclose information apart from that conferred by subsection (4).
The responsible authority for each area (“the relevant area”) and the persons specified in subsection (6) must together draw up a memorandum setting out the ways in which they are to co-operate.
The persons referred to in subsections (3) , (4A)(b) and (5) are—
every youth offending team established for an area any part of which falls within the relevant area,
the Ministers of the Crown exercising functions in relation to social security, child support, war pensions, employment and training,
NHS England,
every local authority acting in the exercise of its relevant functions any part of whose area falls within the relevant area,
every local housing authority ... any part of whose area falls within the relevant area,
every local authority (in its capacity as a person exercising functions for the purposes of the health service) any part of whose area falls within the relevant area,
every private registered provider of social housing or registered social landlord which provides or manages residential accommodation in the relevant area in which persons falling within subsection (2)(a) or (b) reside or may reside,
every Health Authority ... any part of whose area falls within the relevant area,
every integrated care board or ... Local Health Board any part of whose area falls within the relevant area,
every NHS trust any part of whose area falls within the relevant area, ...
every person who is designated by the Secretary of State by order for the purposes of this paragraph as a provider of electronic monitoring services , and
The Secretary of State may by order amend subsection (6) by adding or removing any person or description of person.
Responsible authorities must have regard to any guidance issued under subsection (8) in discharging those functions.
In this section—“the data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act);“education functions” has the meaning given by section 579(1) of the Education Act 1996;“involvement in terrorism-related activity” has the same meaning as in the Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011 (see section 4 of that Act);“local authority” has the same meaning as in the Education Act 1996 (c. 56);“local housing authority” has the same meaning as in the Housing Act 1985 (c. 68);“Minister of the Crown” has the same meaning as in the Ministers of the Crown Act 1975 (c. 26);“NHS trust” has the same meaning as in the National Health Service Act 2006;“personal data” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3(2) of that Act);“prison” has the same meaning as in the Prison Act 1952 (c. 52);“processing” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3(4) of that Act);“registered social landlord” has the same meaning as in Part 1 of the Housing Act 1996 (c. 52);“relevant functions means—in the case of a local authority, the education functions and the social services functions of that authority; in the case of any other person specified in subsection (6), the functions of that person under any other enactment;“a relevant provider of probation services” in relation to an area means a provider of probation services identified as such for the purposes of this section by arrangements under section 3 of the Offender Management Act 2007....“social services functions” has the meaning given—in relation to England, by section 1A of the Local Authority Social Services Act 1970. in relation to Wales, has the meaning given by section 143 of the Social Services and Well-being (Wales) Act 2014.
The responsible authority for each area must keep the arrangements established by it under section 325 under review with a view to monitoring their effectiveness and making any changes to them that appear necessary or expedient.
The responsible authority for any area must exercise their functions under subsection (1) in consultation with persons appointed by the Secretary of State as lay advisers in relation to that authority.
The Secretary of State must appoint two lay advisers under subsection (2) in relation to each responsible authority.
The responsible authority must pay to or in respect of the persons so appointed such allowances as the Secretary of State may determine.
As soon as practicable after the end of each period of 12 months beginning with 1st April, the responsible authority for each area must—
publish the report in that area.
The report must include—
details of the arrangements established by the responsible authority, and
information of such descriptions as the Secretary of State has notified to the responsible authority that he wishes to be included in the report.
For the purposes of section 325, a person is a relevant sexual or violent offender if he falls within one or more of subsections (2) to (4).
A person falls within this subsection if he is subject to the notification requirements of Part 2 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 (c. 42).
A person falls within this subsection if—
he has been convicted by a court in England or Wales of murder or an offence specified in Part 1 or 2 of Schedule 15 or in subsection (4A) below, and
one of the following sentences was imposed on him in respect of the conviction—
a sentence of imprisonment for that is not for a term of less than 12 months,
a sentence of detention in a young offender institution for a term of 12 months or more,
a sentence of detention during Her Majesty’s pleasure,
a sentence of detention for public protection under section 226,
a detention and training order for a term of 12 months or more, or
a hospital or guardianship order within the meaning of the Mental Health Act 1983 (c. 20).
A person falls within this subsection if—
he is found not guilty by a court in England and Wales of murder or an offence specified in Part 1 or 2 of Schedule 15 or in subsection (4A) below by reason of insanity or to be under a disability and to have done the act charged against him in respect of such an offence, and
one of the following orders is made in respect of the act charged against him as the offence—
an order that he be admitted to hospital, or
a guardianship order within the meaning of the Mental Health Act 1983.
The offences specified in this subsection are—
an offence under section 1 of the Child Abduction Act 1984 (abduction of child by parent);
an offence under section 4 of the Asylum and Immigration (Treatment of Claimants, etc) Act 2004 (trafficking people for exploitation), where the offence is committed against a child;
an offence under section 4(3) of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 where the offence is committed by—
supplying or offering to supply a Class A drug to a child,
being concerned in the supplying of such a drug to a child, or
being concerned in the making to a child of an offer to supply such a drug;
an offence under section 76 of the Serious Crime Act 2015 (controlling or coercive behaviour in an intimate or family relationship);
an offence of aiding, abetting, counselling, procuring or inciting the commission of an offence specified in this subsection;
an offence of conspiring to commit an offence so specified;
an offence of attempting to commit an offence so specified.
For the purposes of section 325, a person is a relevant terrorist offender if the person falls within one or both of subsections (4C) and (4D).
A person falls within this subsection if the person is subject to the notification requirements of Part 4 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008.
A person falls within this subsection if the person has been convicted of and sentenced for a relevant terrorist offence, or otherwise dealt within in relation to such an offence, as described in—
paragraph (a) or (b) of section 45(1) of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008,
paragraph (a) or (b) of section 45(2) of that Act,
paragraph (a) or (b) of section 45(3) of that Act, or
paragraph (a) or (b) of paragraph 5(1) of Schedule 6 to that Act.
For the purposes of subsection (4D)—
any reference in the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 to an offence to which Part 4 of that Act applies is to be read as if it were a reference to a relevant terrorist offence, and
any reference in that Act to a hospital order is to be read as if it included a guardianship order within the meaning of the Mental Health Act 1983 or the Mental Health (Northern Ireland) Order 1986 (S.I. 1986/595 (N.I. 4)).
In subsections (4D) and (4E) “relevant terrorist offence” means—and in paragraph (b) “service offence” and “corresponding civil offence” have the same meanings as in the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (see section 95 of that Act).
an offence specified in Part 1 or 2 of Schedule 19ZA (terrorism offences punishable with imprisonment for life or for more than two years),
a service offence as respects which the corresponding civil offence is so specified, or
an offence which was determined to have a terrorist connection (see subsection (4G));
For the purposes of subsection (4F)(c), an offence was determined to have a terrorist connection if it was—
determined to have a terrorist connection under—
section 30 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (in the case of an offender sentenced in England and Wales before the Sentencing Code applied, or an offender sentenced in Northern Ireland but now capable of posing a risk in an area in England and Wales), or
section 32 of that Act (in the case of a person sentenced for a service offence before the Sentencing Code applied), or
proved to have been aggravated by reason of having a terrorist connection under section 31 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (in the case of an offender sentenced in Scotland but now capable of posing a risk in an area in England and Wales).
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In this section—"child" means a person under 18;“court” does not include a service court, as defined by section 305(1).
The responsible authority for each area must, in the course of discharging its functions under arrangements established by it under section 325, consider whether to disclose information in its possession about the relevant previous convictions of any child sex offender managed by it to any particular member of the public.
In the case mentioned in subsection (3) there is a presumption that the responsible authority should disclose information in its possession about the relevant previous convictions of the offender to the particular member of the public.
The case is where the responsible authority for the area has reasonable cause to believe that—
a child sex offender managed by it poses a risk in that or any other area of causing serious harm to any particular child or children or to children of any particular description, and
the disclosure of information about the relevant previous convictions of the offender to the particular member of the public is necessary for the purpose of protecting the particular child or children, or the children of that description, from serious harm caused by the offender.
The presumption under subsection (2) arises whether or not the person to whom the information is disclosed requests the disclosure.
Where the responsible authority makes a disclosure under this section—
it may disclose such information about the relevant previous convictions of the offender as it considers appropriate to disclose to the member of the public concerned, and
it may impose conditions for preventing the member of the public concerned from disclosing the information to any other person.
Any disclosure under this section must be made as soon as is reasonably practicable having regard to all the circumstances.
The responsible authority for each area must compile and maintain a record about the decisions it makes in relation to the discharge of its functions under this section.
The record must include the following information—
the reasons for making a decision to disclose information under this section,
the reasons for making a decision not to disclose information under this section, and
the information which is disclosed under this section, any conditions imposed in relation to its further disclosure and the name and address of the person to whom it is disclosed.
Nothing in this section requires or authorises the making of a disclosure which contravenes the data protection legislation.
This section is not to be taken as affecting any power of any person to disclose any information about a child sex offender.
This section applies for the purposes of section 327A.
“Child” means a person under 18.
“Child sex offence” means an offence listed in Schedule 34A, whenever committed.
“Child sex offender” means any person who—
has been convicted of such an offence,
has been found not guilty of such an offence by reason of insanity,
has been found to be under a disability and to have done the act charged against the person in respect of such an offence, or
has been cautioned in respect of such an offence.
“The data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act).
In relation to a responsible authority, references to information about the relevant previous convictions of a child sex offender are references to information about—
convictions, findings and cautions mentioned in subsection (4)(a) to (d) which relate to the offender, and
anything under the law of any country or territory outside England and Wales which in the opinion of the responsible authority corresponds to any conviction, finding or caution within paragraph (a) (however described).
References to serious harm caused by a child sex offender are references to serious physical or psychological harm caused by the offender committing any offence listed in any paragraph of Schedule 34A other than paragraphs 1 to 6 (offences under provisions repealed by Sexual Offences Act 2003).
A responsible authority for any area manages a child sex offender if the offender is a person who poses risks in that area which fall to be managed by the authority under the arrangements established by it under section 325.
In this section “cautioned”, in relation to any person and any offence, means—
cautioned after the person has admitted the offence,...
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Criminal record certificates
Schedule 35 (which contains amendments of Part 5 of the Police Act 1997 (c. 50)) shall have effect.
Civil proceedings brought by offenders
This section applies where—
a person (“the claimant”) claims that another person (“the defendant”) did an act amounting to trespass to the claimant’s person, and
the claimant has been convicted in the United Kingdom of an imprisonable offence committed on the same occasion as that on which the act is alleged to have been done.
Civil proceedings relating to the claim may be brought only with the permission of the court.
The court may give permission for the proceedings to be brought only if there is evidence that either—
the condition in subsection (5) is not met, or
in all the circumstances, the defendant’s act was grossly disproportionate.
If the court gives permission and the proceedings are brought, it is a defence for the defendant to prove both—
that the condition in subsection (5) is met, and
that, in all the circumstances, his act was not grossly disproportionate.
The condition referred to in subsection (3)(a) and (4)(a) is that the defendant did the act only because—
he believed that the claimant—
was about to commit an offence,
was in the course of committing an offence, or
had committed an offence immediately beforehand; and
he believed that the act was necessary to—or was necessary to assist in achieving any of those things.
defend himself or another person,
protect or recover property,
prevent the commission or continuation of an offence, or
apprehend, or secure the conviction, of the claimant after he had committed an offence;
Subsection (4) is without prejudice to any other defence.
Where—he is to be treated for the purposes of this section as having been convicted in the United Kingdom of that corresponding offence; and in paragraph (a) the reference to conviction includes anything that under section 376(1) and (2) of that Act is to be treated as a conviction.
a person is convicted of an offence under section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (criminal conduct), and
the corresponding offence under the law of England and Wales (within the meaning given by that section) is an imprisonable offence,
In this section—
the reference to trespass to the person is a reference to—
assault,
battery, or
false imprisonment;
references to a defendant’s belief are to his honest belief, whether or not the belief was also reasonable;
“court” means the High Court or the county court and
“imprisonable offence” means an offence which, in the case of a person aged 18 or over, is punishable by imprisonment.
General
This section applies to—
any power conferred by this Act on the Secretary of State to make an order or rules;
the power conferred by section 168 . . . or the Lord Chief Justice to make an order.
the powers conferred on the Lord Chancellor by sections 29(2E), 174(4) and 269(6) to make an order.
The power is exercisable by statutory instrument.
Where a statutory instrument is made by the Lord Chief Justice in the exercise of the power referred to in subsection (1)(b), the Statutory Instruments Act 1946 applies to the instrument as if it contained an order made by a Minister of the Crown.
The power—
may be exercised so as to make different provision for different purposes or different areas, and
may be exercised either for all the purposes to which the power extends, or for those purposes subject to specified exceptions, or only for specified purposes.
The power includes power to make—which the Minister making the instrument considers necessary or expedient.
any supplementary, incidental or consequential provision, and
any transitory, transitional or saving provision,
A statutory instrument containing—may only be made if a draft of the statutory instrument has been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, each House of Parliament.
an order under any of the following provisions—section 22(3C), section 25(5), section 103,. . .......... section... section...... section 237A(13), section 246(5), section 254(6A), section 255A(10), section 255BA(10), section 256AZB,... section 258(2C), section 260, section 267,... section 281(2), section 283(1), section 291, section 301(5), section 325(7), and... paragraph 5 of Schedule 31,
an order under section 23A(4) which makes provision—
increasing the fraction in section 23A(3)(a), or
increasing the figure in section 23A(3)(b) by more than is necessary to reflect changes in the value of money,
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an order making any provision by virtue of section 333(2)(b) which adds to, replaces or omits any part of the text of an Act, ...
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Any other statutory instrument made in the exercise of a power to which this section applies is subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of Parliament.
Any power of the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland to make an order under this Act is exercisable by statutory rule for the purposes of the Statutory Rules (Northern Ireland) Order 1979.
The Department of Justice shall not make any order—unless a draft of it has been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, the Northern Ireland Assembly.
making any provision by virtue of section 333(2)(b) which adds to, replaces or omits any part of the text of an Act, or
Section 41(3) of the Interpretation Act (Northern Ireland) 1954 applies for the purposes of subsection (2) in relation to the laying of a draft as it applies in relation to the laying of a statutory document under an enactment.
Any power of the Department of Justice to make an order under this Act—
may be exercised so as to make different provision for different purposes or different areas, and
may be exercised either for all the purposes to which the power extends, or for those purposes subject to specified exceptions, or only for specified purposes.
The power includes power to make—which the Department of Justice considers necessary or expedient.
any supplementary, incidental or consequential provision, and
any transitory, transitional or saving provision,
Schedule 36 (further minor and consequential amendments) shall have effect.
Schedule 37 (repeals) shall have effect.
The Secretary of State may by order make—which he considers necessary or expedient for the purposes of, in consequence of, or for giving full effect to any provision of this Act.
any supplementary, incidental or consequential provision, and
any transitory, transitional or saving provision,
In the application of this section to Northern Ireland, any reference to the Secretary of State is to be read as a reference to the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland.
An order under subsection (1) may, in particular—
provide for any provision of this Act which comes into force before another such provision has come into force to have effect, until that other provision has come into force, with such modifications as are specified in the order, and
amend or repeal—
any Act passed before, or in the same Session as, this Act, and
subordinate legislation made before the passing of this Act.
Nothing in this section limits the power by virtue of section 330(4)(b) or 330A(6)(b) to include transitional or saving provision in an order under section 336.
The amendments that may be made under subsection (2)(b) are in addition to those made by or under any other provision of this Act.
In this section “subordinate legislation” has the same meaning as in the Interpretation Act 1978 (c. 30).
Schedule 38 (which contains transitory and transitional provisions and savings) shall have effect.
An Order in Council under section 85 of the Northern Ireland Act 1998 (c. 47) (provision dealing with certain reserved matters) which contains a statement that it is made only for purposes corresponding to those of any provisions of this Act specified in subsection (2)—
shall not be subject to subsections (3) to (9) of that section (affirmative resolution of both Houses of Parliament), but
shall be subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of Parliament.
The provisions are—
Parts 8, 9 and 11.
In relation to any time when section 1 of the Northern Ireland Act 2000 (c. 1) is in force (suspension of devolved government in Northern Ireland)—
the reference in subsection (1) above to section 85 of the Northern Ireland Act 1998 shall be read as a reference to paragraph 1 of the Schedule to the Northern Ireland Act 2000 (legislation by Order in Council during suspension), and
the reference in subsection (1)(a) above to subsections (3) to (9) of that section shall be read as a reference to paragraph 2 of that Schedule.
The reference in section 41(2) of the Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 2002 (c. 26) (transfer of certain functions to Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland) to any function of the Attorney General for Northern Ireland of consenting to the institution of criminal proceedings includes any such function which is conferred by an amendment made by this Act.
Any reference to any provision of the Criminal Appeal (Northern Ireland) Act 1980 (c. 47) in the Access to Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 2003 (S.I. 2003/435 (N.I. 10)) is to be read as a reference to that provision as amended by this Act.
There shall be paid out of money provided by Parliament—
any expenditure incurred by a Minister of the Crown by virtue of this Act, and
any increase attributable to this Act in the sums payable out of money so provided under any other enactment.
section 168(1) and (2), section 183(8), section 307(1) to (3), (5) and (6), section 330, section 333(1) to (5), sections 334 and 335, this section and sections 337, 338 and 339, and the repeal in Part 9 of Schedule 37 of section 81(2) and (3) of the Countryside and Rights of Way Act 2000 (c. 37) (and section 332 so far as relating to that repeal), and paragraphs 1 and 6 of Schedule 38 (and section 333(6) so far as relating to those paragraphs). Chapter 7 of Part 12 (and Schedules 21 and 22); section 303(b)(i) and (ii); paragraphs 42, 43(3), 66, 83(1) to (3), 84 and 109(2), (3)(b), (4) and (5) of Schedule 32 (and section 304 so far as relating to those provisions); Part 8 of Schedule 37 (and section 332 so far as relating to that Part of that Schedule).
The following provisions of this Act come into force on the passing of this Act—
The following provisions of this Act come into force at the end of the period of four weeks beginning with the day on which this Act is passed—
The remaining provisions of this Act come into force in accordance with provision made by the Secretary of State by order.
Different provision may be made for different purposes and different areas.
For the purposes of the law of Northern Ireland, the power in subsection (3) is exercisable by the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland (and not by the Secretary of State).
Subject to the following provisions of this section and to section 338, this Act extends to England and Wales only.
The following provisions extend also to Scotland and Northern Ireland—sections 71 and 72; sections 82 and 83;... section 188 and Schedule 11;... section 293; section 306 section 307; section 311; this Part, except sections 331, 332 and 334(5); paragraphs 19, 70 and 71 of Schedule 3;... paragraphs 3, 6, 7 and 8 of Schedule 27; paragraphs 6 to 8 of Schedule 31.
Section 290 extends to Scotland only.
The amendment or repeal of any enactment by any provision of—extends to the part or parts of the United Kingdom to which the enactment extends.
Part 1,
section 285,
Part 2 of Schedule 3 (except as mentioned in subsection (8)),
Schedule 27,
Schedule 28,
Part 1 of Schedule 32,
Parts 1 to 4 and 6 of Schedule 36, and
Parts 1 to 4, 6 to 8, 10 and 12 of Schedule 37 (except as mentioned in subsection (9)),
Paragraphs 29, 30, 31, 39, 41, 50, 53 and 63 of Schedule 3 do not extend to Northern Ireland.
The repeals in Part 4 of Schedule 37 relating to—do not extend to Northern Ireland.
the Bankers' Books Evidence Act 1879 (c. 11),
the Explosive Substances Act 1883 (c. 3),
the Backing of Warrants (Republic of Ireland) Act 1965 (c. 45),
the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2), and
the Contempt of Court Act 1981 (c. 49),
The provisions mentioned in subsection (11), so far as relating to proceedings before a particular service court, have the same extent as the Act under which the court is constituted.
Those provisions are—
Nothing in subsection (1) affects —
the extent of Chapter 7 of Part 12 so far as relating to sentences passed in respect of service offences within the meaning of the Armed Forces Act 2006, or
Any provision of this Act which—has the same extent as the enactment to which it relates.
relates to any enactment contained in—
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the Court Martial Appeals Act 1968(c. 20), or
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section 113 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60),
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Subject to subsections (2) and (3), Her Majesty may by Order in Council extend any provision of this Act, with such modifications as appear to Her Majesty in Council to be appropriate, to any of the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man.
Subsection (1) does not authorise the extension to any place of a provision of this Act so far as the provision amends an enactment that does not itself extend there and is not itself capable of being extended there in the exercise of a power conferred on Her Majesty in Council.
Subsection (1) does not apply in relation to any provision that extends to the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man by virtue of any of subsections (10) to (13) of section 337.
Subsection (4) of section 330 applies to the power to make an Order in Council under subsection (1) as it applies to any power of the Secretary of State to make an order under this Act, but as if references in that subsection to the Minister making the instrument were references to Her Majesty in Council.
This Act may be cited as the Criminal Justice Act 2003.
Amendments related to Part 1
The 1984 Act
The 1984 Act is amended as follows.
In section 18 (entry and search after arrest), for subsection (5) there is substituted—
In section 21 (access and copying), at the end there is inserted—
In section 22 (retention), at the end there is inserted—
In section 34 (limitation on police detention), for subsection (7) there is substituted—
In section 36 (custody officers at police stations), after subsection (7) there is inserted—
In section 41(2) (calculation of periods of time), after paragraph (c) there is inserted—.
In section 45A(2)(a) (functions which may be performed by video-conferencing), after “taken to” there is inserted “ , or answering to bail at, ”.
In section 47 (bail after arrest)—
in subsection (6), after “granted bail” there is inserted “ under this Part ”, and
in subsection (7), after “released on bail” there is inserted “ under this Part ”.
Criminal Justice Act 1987 (c. 38)
In section 2 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 (director’s investigation powers), after subsection (6) there is inserted—
In subsection (7) of that section (meaning of appropriate person), for “subsection (6) above” there is substituted “ this section ”.
In subsection (8D) of that section (references to evidence obtained by Director), after “by a constable” there is inserted “ or by an appropriate person ”.
Criminal Justice and Police Act 2001 (c. 16)
In section 56 of the Criminal Justice and Police Act 2001 (property seized by constables etc.), after subsection (4) there is inserted—
Armed Forces Act 2001 (c. 19)
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Police Reform Act 2002 (c. 30)
Schedule 4 to the Police Reform Act 2002 (powers exercisable by police civilians) is amended as follows.
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In paragraph 34 (powers of escort officer to take arrested person to prison), in sub-paragraph (1)(a), for “subsection (1) of section 30” there is substituted “ subsection (1A) of section 30 ”.
Charging or release of persons in police detention
The Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) is amended as follows.
Section 37 (duties of custody officers before charge) is amended as follows.
In subsection (7) for paragraphs (a) and (b) there is substituted—
After that subsection there is inserted—
In subsection (8)(a) after “(7)(b)” there is inserted “ or (c) ”.
After that section there is inserted—
In section 40 (review of police detention) in subsection (9) after “37(9)” there is inserted “ or 37D(5) ”.
In section 46A (power of arrest for failure to answer police bail) after subsection (1) insert—
Section 47 (bail after arrest) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1) (release on bail under Part 4 shall be release on bail granted in accordance with certain provisions of the Bail Act 1976) for “Subject to subsection (2) below” there is substituted “ Subject to the following provisions of this section ”.
In subsection (1A) (bail conditions may be imposed when a person is released under section 38(1)) after “section”, in the first place where it occurs, there is inserted “ 37(7)(a) above or section ”.
After that subsection there is inserted—
Allocation of cases triable either way, and sending cases to the Crown Court etc
Principal amendments
Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43)
The Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 is amended as follows.
Section 17A (initial indication as to plea) is amended as follows.
For paragraph (b) of subsection (4) there is substituted—
After subsection (9) there is inserted—
After section 17C there is inserted—
In section 18 (initial procedure on information against adult for offence triable either way), for subsection (5) there is substituted—
For section 19 (court to begin by considering which mode of trial appears more suitable) there is substituted—
For section 20 (procedure where summary trial appears more suitable) there is substituted—
For section 21 (procedure where trial on indictment appears more suitable) there is substituted—
Section 23 (power of court, with consent of legally represented accused, to proceed in his absence) is amended as follows.
In subsection (4)—
for the words preceding paragraph (a) there is substituted “ If the court decides under section 19 above that the offence appears to it more suitable for summary trial then— ”, and
in paragraph (b), for the words from “to inquire” to the end there is substituted “ in relation to the offence in accordance with section 51(1) of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998. ”.
For subsection (5) there is substituted—
For subsection (1) there is substituted—
Subsections (1A) , (1B) and (2) are omitted.
In subsection (3) for “the said Act of 2000” substitute the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000.
After section 24 there is inserted—
In subsection (1), for “(2) to (4)” there is substituted “ (2) to (2D) ”.
For subsection (2) there is substituted—
Subsections (3) to (8) are omitted.
For subsections (1) and (2) of section 26 (power to issue summons to accused in certain circumstances) there is substituted—
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Section 42 (restriction on justices sitting after dealing with bail) shall cease to have effect.
Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (c. 37)
The Crime and Disorder Act 1998 is amended as follows.
After section 50 there is inserted—
For section 51 (no committal proceedings for indictable-only offences) there is substituted—
After section 52 there is inserted—.
In section 121 (short title, commencement and extent)—
in subsection (6), after paragraph (b) there is inserted—, and
in subsection (8), after “(5) above,” there is inserted “ sections 52A and 52B above, ”.
Schedule 3 (procedure where persons are sent for trial under section 51 of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998) is amended as follows.
In paragraph 1(1)—
after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”, and
in paragraph (b), for “subsection (7) of that section” there is substituted “ section 51D(1) of this Act ”.
In paragraph 2—
in sub-paragraph (1)—
after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”, and
for “subsection (7) of that section” there is substituted “ section 51D(1) of this Act ”, and
sub-paragraphs (4) and (5) are omitted.
In paragraph 4, in sub-paragraph (1)(a), after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”.
In paragraph 5, in sub-paragraph (2), after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”.
Paragraph 6 is amended as follows—
in sub-paragraph (1), after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”,
in sub-paragraph (2), for the words from the second “offence” to the end there is substituted “ indictable offence for which he was sent for trial or, as the case may be, any of the indictable offences for which he was so sent ”, and
in sub-paragraph (9), for “indictable-only” there is substituted “ indictable ”.
In paragraph 7—
in sub-paragraph (1)(a), after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”,
in sub-paragraph (1)(b), for “offence that is triable only on indictment” there is substituted “ main offence ”,
in sub-paragraph (3), after “each” there is inserted “ remaining ”,
in sub-paragraph (7), for “consider” there is substituted “ decide ”, and
after sub-paragraph (8) there is inserted—
In paragraph 8—
in sub-paragraph (1)(a), after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”,
in sub-paragraph (1)(b), for “offence that is triable only on indictment” there is substituted “ main offence (within the meaning of paragraph 7 above) ”,
in sub-paragraph (2)(a), after “each” there is inserted “ remaining ”, and
in sub-paragraph (2)(d), for “consider” there is substituted “ decide ”.
In paragraph 9—
in sub-paragraph (1), for “consider” there is substituted “ decide ”, and
for sub-paragraphs (2) and (3), there is substituted—
In paragraph 10—
for sub-paragraph (2), there is substituted—, and
in sub-paragraph (3), for “by a jury” there is substituted “ on indictment ”.
In paragraph 11, in sub-paragraph (a), for “by a jury” there is substituted “ on indictment ”.
Paragraph 12 shall cease to have effect.
In paragraph 13—
in sub-paragraph (1)(a), after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”,
in sub-paragraph (1)(b), for “offence that is triable only on indictment” there is substituted “ main offence ”,
in sub-paragraph (2), the words from “unless” to the end are omitted, and
for sub-paragraph (3) there is substituted—
In paragraph 15, in each of sub-paragraphs (3) and (4), for “considered” there is substituted “ decided ”.
Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6)
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minor and consequential amendments
Territorial Waters Jurisdiction Act 1878 (c. 73)
In section 4 of the Territorial Waters Jurisdiction Act 1878 (provisions as to procedure), in the paragraph beginning “Proceedings before a justice of the peace”, for the words from the beginning to “his trial” there is substituted—.
Bankers' Books Evidence Act 1879 (c. 11)
The Bankers' Books Evidence Act 1879 is amended as follows.
In section 4 (proof that book is a banker’s book), the paragraph beginning “Where the proceedings” is omitted.
In section 5 (verification of copy), the paragraph beginning “Where the proceedings” is omitted.
Explosive Substances Act 1883 (c. 3)
In section 6 of the Explosive Substances Act 1883 (inquiry by Attorney-General, and apprehension of absconding witnesses), subsection (3) is omitted.
Criminal Justice Act 1925 (c. 86)
In section 49 of the Criminal Justice Act 1925 (interpretation, etc), subsection (2) is omitted.
Children and Young Persons Act 1933 (c. 12)
In section 42 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 (extension of power to take deposition of child or young person), in subsection (2)(a), for “committed” in both places there is substituted “ sent ”.
Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933 (c. 36)
Section 2 of the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933 (procedure for indictment of offenders) is amended as follows.
In subsection (2)—
in paragraph (a), for “committed” there is substituted “ sent ”,
paragraphs (aa) to (ac) are omitted,
for paragraph (i) there is substituted—,
paragraphs (iA) and (iB) are omitted,
in paragraph (ii), for “the committal” there is substituted “ such notice ”, and
the words from “and in paragraph (iA)” to the end are omitted.
In subsection (3)(b), for “committed” there is substituted “ sent ”.
Criminal Justice Act 1948 (c. 58)
The Criminal Justice Act 1948 is amended as follows.
In section 27 (remand and committal of persons aged 17 to 20), in subsection (1), for “commits him for trial or” there is substituted “ sends him to the Crown Court for trial or commits him there for ”.
In section 41 (evidence by certificate), subsection (5A) is omitted.
In section 80 (interpretation), the definition of “Court of summary jurisdiction” is omitted.
Prison Act 1952 (c. 52)
Until their repeal by (respectively) section 59 of, and paragraph 10(a)(ii) of Schedule 7 to, the Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000, paragraph (a) of subsection (1), and paragraphs (b) and (c) of subsection (2), of section 43 of the Prison Act 1952 (remand centres, detention centres and youth custody centres) are to have effect as if references to being committed for trial were references to being sent for trial.
Army Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 18)
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Air Force Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 19)
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Geneva Conventions Act 1957 (c. 52)
In section 5 of the Geneva Conventions Act 1957 (reduction of sentence and custody of protected persons)—
in subsection (1), for “committal” there is substituted “ having been sent ”,
in subsection (2), for “committal”, where it first appears, there is substituted “ having been sent ”.
Naval Discipline Act 1957 (c. 53)
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Backing of Warrants (Republic of Ireland) Act 1965 (c. 45)
In paragraph 4 of the Schedule to the Backing of Warrants (Republic of Ireland) Act 1965 (supplementary procedures as to proceedings under section 2)—
the words “and section 2 of the Poor Prisoners Defence Act 1930 (legal aid before examining justices)” are omitted, and
for “it had determined not to commit for trial” there is substituted “ the offence were to be dealt with summarily and the court had dismissed the information ”.
Criminal Procedure (Attendance of Witnesses) Act 1965 (c. 69)
In section 2 of the Criminal Procedure (Attendance of Witnesses) Act 1965 (issue of witness summons on application to Crown Court)—
for subsection (4) there is substituted—, and
subsection (5) is omitted.
Criminal Justice Act 1967 (c. 80)
The Criminal Justice Act 1967 is amended as follows.
In section 9 (proof by written statement), in subsection (1), the words “, other than committal proceedings,” are omitted.
In section 36 (interpretation), in subsection (1), the definition of “committal proceedings” is omitted.
Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19)
The Criminal Appeal Act 1968 is amended as follows.
In section 1 (right of appeal), in subsection (3), for “committed him” there is substituted “ sent him to the Crown Court ”.
Firearms Act 1968 (c. 27)
In Schedule 6 to the Firearms Act 1968 (prosecution and punishment of offences), in Part 2, paragraph 3 is omitted.
Theft Act 1968 (c. 60)
In section 27 of the Theft Act 1968 (evidence and procedure on charge of theft or handling stolen goods), subsection (4A) is omitted.
Criminal Justice Act 1972 (c. 71)
In section 46 of the Criminal Justice Act 1972 (admissibility of written statements outside England and Wales), subsections (1A) to (1C) are omitted.
Bail Act 1976 (c. 63)
The Bail Act 1976 is amended as follows.
In section 3 (general provisions)—
in subsection (8)—
for “committed” there is substituted “ sent ”, and
after “for trial or” there is inserted “ committed him on bail to the Crown Court ”, and
subsections (8A) and (8B), and the subsection (10) inserted by paragraph 12(b) of Schedule 9 to the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 (c. 33), are omitted.
In section 5 (supplementary provisions about decisions on bail)—
in subsection (6)(a), for “committing” there is substituted “ sending ”, and
in subsection (6A)(a)—
after “under” there is inserted “ section 52(5) of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998, ”,
sub-paragraph (i) is omitted,
after sub-paragraph (ii) there is inserted—, and
at the end of sub-paragraph (iii) there is inserted.
In section 6 (offence of absconding by person released on bail), in subsection (6)(b), for “commits” there is substituted “ sends ”.
In section 9 (offence of agreeing to indemnify sureties in criminal proceedings), in subsection (3)(b), for “commits” there is substituted “ sends ”.
Interpretation Act 1978 (c. 30)
In Schedule 1 to the Interpretation Act 1978 (words and expressions defined)—
in the definition of “Committed for trial”, paragraph (a) is omitted,
after the entry for “Secretary of State” there is inserted—
Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2)
In section 147 of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (proceedings for offences), subsection (2) is omitted.
Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43)
The Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 is amended as follows.
In section 8B, as inserted by the Courts Act 2003 (effect of rulings at pre-trial hearing), in subsection (6), the words “commits or” are omitted.
In section 29 (power of magistrates' court to remit a person under 17 for trial to a juvenile court in certain circumstances), in subsection (2)(b)(i), for the words from “proceeds” to the end there is substituted “ sends him to the Crown Court for trial under section 51 or 51A of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998; and ”.
The following sections shall cease to have effect—
section 97A (summons or warrant as to committal proceedings),
section 103 (evidence of persons under 14 in committal proceedings for assault, sexual offences etc), and
section 106 (false written statements tendered in evidence).
In section 128 (remand in custody or on bail)—
in subsection (1)(b), the words “inquiring into or” are omitted,
in subsection (1A)(a)—
“5,” is omitted, and
for “or 18(4)” there is substituted “ , 18(4) or 24C ”,
in subsection (3A)—
“5,” is omitted, and
for “or 18(4)” there is substituted “ , 18(4) or 24C ”,
in subsection (3C)(a)—
“5,” is omitted, and
for “or 18(4)” there is substituted “ , 18(4) or 24C ”, and
in subsection (3E)(a)—
“5,” is omitted, and
for “or 18(4)” there is substituted “ , 18(4) or 24C ”.
In section 129 (further remand), in subsection (4)—
for “commits a person” there is substituted “ sends a person to the Crown Court ”, and
for “committed” there is substituted “ sent ”.
In section 130 (transfer of remand hearings), in subsection (1)—
“5,” is omitted, and
for “or 18(4)” there is substituted “ , 18(4) or 24C ”.
In section 145 (rules: supplementary provisions), in subsection (1), paragraph (f) is omitted.
In section 150 (interpretation of other terms), in subsection (1), the definition of “committal proceedings” is omitted.
In section 155 (short title, extent and commencement), in subsection (2)(a), the words “8 (except subsection (9))” are omitted.
In Schedule 3 (corporations)—
in paragraph 2, sub-paragraph (a) is omitted,
in paragraph 6, for “inquiry into, and trial of,” there is substituted “ trial of ”.
In Schedule 5 (transfer of remand hearings)—
paragraph 2 is omitted, and
in paragraph 5, for “5, 10 or 18(4)” there is substituted “ 10, 17C, 18(4) or 24C ”.
Criminal Attempts Act 1981 (c. 47)
In section 2 of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981 (application of procedures and other provisions to offences under section 1), in subsection (2)(g), the words “or committed for trial” are omitted.
Contempt of Court Act 1981 (c. 49)
In section 4 of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 (contemporary reports of proceedings), in subsection (3), for paragraph (b) there is substituted—
Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54)
The Supreme Court Act 1981 is amended as follows.
In section 76 (committal for trial: alteration of place of trial)—
in subsection (1), for the words from “varying” (where it first appears) to “to Crown Court)” there is substituted “ substituting some other place for the place specified in a notice under section 51D(1) of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (a “section 51D notice”) ”,
in subsection (3), for the words “fixed by the magistrates' court, as specified in a notice under a relevant transfer provision” there is substituted “ specified in a section 51D notice ”,
subsection (5) is omitted, and
in the heading, for “Committal” there is substituted “ Sending ”.
In section 77 (committal for trial: date of trial)—
in subsection (1), for “committal for trial or the giving of a notice of transfer under a relevant transfer provision” there is substituted “ being sent for trial ”,
in subsection (2), for “committed by a magistrates' court or in respect of whom a notice of transfer under a relevant transfer provision has been given” there is substituted “ sent for trial ”,
in subsection (3), for “of committal for trial or of a notice of transfer” there is substituted “ when the defendant is sent for trial ”,
subsection (4) is omitted, and
in the heading, for “Committal” there is substituted “ Sending ”.
In section 80 (process to compel appearance), in subsection (2), for “committed” there is substituted “ sent ”.
In section 81—
in subsection (1)—
in paragraph (a)—
the words “who has been committed in custody for appearance before the Crown Court or in relation to whose case a notice of transfer has been given under a relevant transfer provision or” are omitted, and
after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”,
in paragraph (g), sub-paragraph (i) is omitted, and
subsection (7) is omitted.
Mental Health Act 1983 (c. 20)
The Mental Health Act 1983 is amended as follows.
In section 43 (power of magistrates' court to commit for restriction order), for subsection (4) there is substituted—
In section 52 (further provisions as to persons remanded by magistrates' courts)—
in subsection (2), for “committed” there is substituted “ sent ”,
in subsection (5), for “committed” there is substituted “ sent ”,
in subsection (6), for “committed” there is substituted “ sent ”, and
in subsection (7), for the words from “inquire” to “1980” there is substituted “ send him to the Crown Court for trial under section 51 or 51A of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 ”, and in paragraph (b) of that subsection, the words “where the court proceeds under subsection (1) of that section” are omitted.
Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60)
The Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 is amended as follows.
In section 62 (intimate samples), in subsection (10)—
sub-paragraph (i) of paragraph (a) is omitted, and
in paragraph (aa), for sub-paragraphs (i) and (ii) there is substituted “ paragraph 2 of Schedule 3 to the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (applications for dismissal); and ”.
In section 71 (microfilm copies), the paragraph beginning “Where the proceedings” is omitted.
In section 76 (confessions), subsection (9) is omitted.
In section 78 (exclusion of unfair evidence), subsection (3) is omitted.
Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 (c. 23)
The Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 is amended as follows.
In section 7A (powers of non-legal staff), for subsection (6) there is substituted—
In section 16 (defence costs)—
in subsection (1), paragraph (b) is omitted, and
in subsection (2)—
in paragraph (a), for “committed” there is substituted “ sent ”, and
paragraph (aa) is omitted, and
subsection (12) is omitted.
In section 21 (interpretation), in subsection (6)(b), for “committed” there is substituted “ sent ”.
In section 22 (power of Secretary of State to set time limits in relation to preliminary stages of criminal proceedings), in subsection (11)—
in paragraph (a) of the definition of “appropriate court”, for “committed for trial, sent for trial under section 51 of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998” there is substituted “ sent for trial ”,
for the definition of “custody of the Crown Court” there is substituted—.
In section 23 (discontinuance of proceedings in magistrates' court), in subsection (2), for paragraphs (a) to (c) there is substituted—
In section 23A (discontinuance of proceedings after accused has been sent for trial)—
in paragraph (b) of subsection (1), the words from “under” to “1998” are omitted, and
in subsection (2), for “51(7)” there is substituted “ 51D(1) ”.
Criminal Justice Act 1987 (c. 38)
The Criminal Justice Act 1987 is amended as follows.
In section 11 (restrictions on reporting)—
in subsection (2), paragraph (a) is omitted,
subsection (3) is omitted,
in subsection (7), “(3),” is omitted,
in subsection (8), “(3),” is omitted,
subsections (9) and (10) are omitted,
in subsection (11), paragraphs (a) and (d) are omitted.
Coroners Act 1988 (c. 13)
The Coroners Act 1988 is amended as follows.
In section 16 (adjournment of inquest in event of criminal proceedings)—
in subsection (1)(b), for “charged before examining justices with” there is substituted “ sent for trial for ”, and
for subsection (8) there is substituted—
in subsection (2), for “committed” there is substituted “ sent ”, and
in subsection (3)(b), for “committed” there is substituted “ sent ”.
Criminal Justice Act 1988 (c. 33)
The Criminal Justice Act 1988 is amended as follows.
In section 23 (first-hand hearsay), subsection (5) is omitted.
In section 24 (business etc documents), subsection (5) is omitted.
In section 26 (statements in certain documents), the paragraph beginning “This section shall not apply” is omitted.
In section 27 (proof of statements contained in documents), the paragraph beginning “This section shall not apply” is omitted.
In section 30 (expert reports), subsection (4A) is omitted.
In section 40 (power to join in indictment count for common assault etc), in subsection (1)—
the words “were disclosed to a magistrates' court inquiring into the offence as examining justices or” are omitted,
after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”.
Section 41 (power of Crown Court to deal with summary offence where person committed for either way offence) shall cease to have effect.
Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 (c. 53)
The Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 is amended as follows.
In section 11 (evidence by certificate as to driver, user or owner), subsection (3A) is omitted.
In section 13 (admissibility of records as evidence), subsection (7) is omitted.
In section 16 (documentary evidence as to specimens), subsection (6A) is omitted.
In section 20 (speeding offences etc), subsection (8A) is omitted.
Criminal Justice Act 1991 (c. 53)
The Criminal Justice Act 1991 is amended as follows.
Section 53 (notices of transfer in certain cases involving children) shall cease to have effect.
Schedule 6 (notices of transfer: procedures in lieu of committal) shall cease to have effect.
Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act 1992 (c. 34)
In section 6 of the Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act 1992 (interpretation), in subsection (3)(c), for “commits him” there is substituted “ sends him to the Crown Court ”.
Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 (c. 33)
The Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 is amended as follows.
In section 34 (effect of accused’s failure to mention facts when questioned or charged), in subsection (2)—
paragraph (a) is omitted, and
in paragraph (b), for sub-paragraphs (i) and (ii), there is substituted “ paragraph 2 of Schedule 3 to the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 ” .
In section 36 (effect of accused’s failure or refusal to account for objects, substances or marks), in subsection (2)—
paragraph (a) is omitted, and
in paragraph (b), for sub-paragraphs (i) and (ii), there is substituted “ paragraph 2 of Schedule 3 to the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 ”.
In section 37 (effect of accused’s failure or refusal to account for presence at a particular place), in subsection (2)—
paragraph (a) is omitted, and
in paragraph (b), for sub-paragraphs (i) and (ii), there is substituted “ paragraph 2 of Schedule 3 to the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 ”.
Reserve Forces Act 1996 (c. 14)
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Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 (c. 25)
The Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 is amended as follows.
In section 1 (application of this Part), in subsection (2)—
paragraphs (a) to (c) are omitted, and
in paragraph (cc), the words from “under” to the end are omitted.
In section 5 (compulsory disclosure by accused)—
in subsection (1), for “(2) to” there is substituted “ (3A) and ”,
subsections (2) and (3) are omitted, and
in subsection (3A), in paragraph (b), for “subsection (7) of section 51” there is substituted “ subsection (1) of section 51D ”.
In section 13 (time limits: transitional), in subsection (1), paragraphs (a) to (c) of the modified section 3(8) are omitted.
In section 21 (common law rules as to disclosure), in subsection (3), for paragraphs (b) and (c) there is substituted—.
In section 28 (introduction to Part 3), in subsection (1)—
for paragraph (a) there is substituted—, and
paragraph (b) is omitted.
In section 39 (meaning of pre-trial hearing), in subsection (1), for paragraph (a) there is substituted—.
Sexual Offences (Protected Material) Act 1997 (c. 39)
In section 9 of the Sexual Offences (Protected Material) Act 1997 (modification and amendment of certain enactments), subsection (1) is omitted.
Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (c. 37)
The Crime and Disorder Act 1998 is amended as follows.
in subsection (1), after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”,
in subsection (3), after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”,
in subsection (5), after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”,
in subsection (6), after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”, and
in the heading, after “51” there is inserted “ and 51A ”.
In paragraph 3 of Schedule 3 (reporting restrictions)—
in each of paragraphs (a) and (b) of sub-paragraph (1), for “Great Britain” there is substituted “ the United Kingdom ”,
in sub-paragraph (8), after paragraph (b) there is inserted—,
after sub-paragraph (9) there is inserted—, and
after sub-paragraph (11) there is inserted—
In paragraph 4 of Schedule 3 (power of justice to take depositions etc), in sub-paragraph (12), for the definition of “the relevant date” there is substituted—
Youth Justice and Criminal Evidence Act 1999 (c. 23)
The Youth Justice and Criminal Evidence Act 1999 is amended as follows.
In section 27 (video recorded evidence in chief), subsection (10) is omitted.
paragraphs (a) and (b) are omitted, and
in paragraph (c), after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”.
Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6)
The Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 is amended as follows.
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In section 140 (enforcement of fines etc), in subsection (1)(b)—
the words “was committed to the Crown Court to be tried or dealt with or by which he” are omitted, and
after “51” there is inserted “ or 51A ”.
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In Schedule 11, paragraph 9 is omitted.
Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c. 29)
The Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 is amended as follows.
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In section 70 (committal by magistrates' court), in subsection (5), after “way)” there is inserted “ or under section 3B(2) of that Act (committal of child or young person) ”.
Prohibitions and limitations on use of live links
Conduct of proceedings wholly as audio proceedings
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Conduct of proceedings wholly as video proceedings
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Other use of live audio links in preliminary and incidental proceedings etc
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Other use of live audio links in other eligible criminal proceedings
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Other limitations to apply also
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Qualifying offences for purposes of section 62
List of offences
Offences Against the Person
Murder.
An offence under section 1 of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981 (c. 47) of attempting to commit murder.
An offence under section 4 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861 (c. 100).
Manslaughter.
An offence under section 1 of the Corporate Manslaughter and Corporate Homicide Act 2007.
An offence under section 18 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861 (c. 100).
Kidnapping.
Sexual Offences
An offence under section 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 (c. 69) or section 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 (c. 42).
An offence under section 1 of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981 (c. 47) of attempting to commit an offence under section 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 or section 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003.
An offence under section 5 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956.
An offence under section 10 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 alleged to have been committed with a girl under thirteen.
An offence under section 2 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003.
An offence under section 4 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 where it is alleged that the activity caused involved penetration within subsection (4)(a) to (d) of that section.
An offence under section 5 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003.
An offence under section 1 of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981 of attempting to commit an offence under section 5 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003.
An offence under section 6 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003.
An offence under section 8 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 (c. 42) where it is alleged that an activity involving penetration within subsection (2)(a) to (d) of that section was caused.
An offence under section 30 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 where it is alleged that the touching involved penetration within subsection (3)(a) to (d) of that section.
An offence under section 31 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 where it is alleged that an activity involving penetration within subsection (3)(a) to (d) of that section was caused.
Drugs Offences
An offence under section 50(2) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2) alleged to have been committed in respect of a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 (c. 38)).
An offence under section 68(2) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 alleged to have been committed in respect of a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971).
An offence under section 170(1) or (2) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 alleged to have been committed in respect of a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971).
An offence under section 4(2) of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 alleged to have been committed in relation to a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of that Act).
An offence under section 4(3) of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 alleged to have been committed in relation to a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of that Act).
Theft Offences
An offence under section 8(1) of the Theft Act 1968 (c. 60) where it is alleged that, at some time during the commission of the offence, the defendant had in his possession a firearm or imitation firearm (as defined by section 57 of the Firearms Act 1968 (c. 27)).
Criminal Damage Offences
An offence under section 1(2) of the Criminal Damage Act 1971 (c. 48) alleged to have been committed by destroying or damaging property by fire.
An offence under section 2 of the Explosive Substances Act 1883 (c. 3).
An offence under section 3(1)(a) of the Explosive Substances Act 1883.
War Crimes and Terrorism
An offence under section 1 of the Geneva Conventions Act 1957 (c. 52).
An offence under section 56 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11).
An offence under section 1 of the Taking of Hostages Act 1982 (c. 28).
Hijacking and Other Offences Relating to Aviation, Maritime and Rail Security
An offence under section 1 of the Aviation Security Act 1982 (c. 36).
An offence under section 2 of the Aviation Security Act 1982.
An offence under paragraph 1 of Schedule 4 to the Space Industry Act 2018.
An offence under paragraph 2 of Schedule 4 to the Space Industry Act 2018.
An offence under section 9 of the Aviation and Maritime Security Act 1990 (c. 31).
An offence under section 10 of the Aviation and Maritime Security Act 1990.
An offence under section 11 of the Aviation and Maritime Security Act 1990.
An offence under article 4 of the Channel Tunnel (Security) Order 1994 (S.I.1994/570).
An offence under article 5 of the Channel Tunnel (Security) Order 1994 (S.I.1994/570).
Conspiracy
An offence under section 1 of the Criminal Law Act 1977 (c. 45) of conspiracy to commit an offence listed in this Part of this Schedule.
Supplementary
A reference in Part 1 of this Schedule to an offence includes a reference to an offence of aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of the offence.
A reference in Part 1 of this Schedule to an enactment includes a reference to the enactment as enacted and as amended from time to time.
Qualifying offences for purposes of Part 10
List of offences for England and Wales
Offences Against the Person
Murder.
An offence under section 1 of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981 (c. 47) of attempting to commit murder.
An offence under section 4 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861 (c. 100).
Manslaughter.
An offence under section 1 of the Corporate Manslaughter and Corporate Homicide Act 2007.
Kidnapping.
Sexual Offences
An offence under section 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 (c. 69) or section 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 (c. 42).
An offence under section 1 of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981 of attempting to commit an offence under section 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 or section 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003.
An offence under section 5 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956.
An offence under section 10 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 alleged to have been committed with a girl under thirteen.
An offence under section 2 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 (c. 42).
An offence under section 4 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 where it is alleged that the activity caused involved penetration within subsection (4)(a) to (d) of that section.
An offence under section 5 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003.
An offence under section 1 of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981 (c. 47) of attempting to commit an offence under section 5 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003.
An offence under section 6 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003.
An offence under section 8 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 where it is alleged that an activity involving penetration within subsection (2)(a) to (d) of that section was caused.
An offence under section 30 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 where it is alleged that the touching involved penetration within subsection (3)(a) to (d) of that section.
An offence under section 31 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 where it is alleged that an activity involving penetration within subsection (3)(a) to (d) of that section was caused.
Drugs Offences
An offence under section 50(2) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2) alleged to have been committed in respect of a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 (c. 38)).
An offence under section 68(2) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 alleged to have been committed in respect of a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971).
An offence under section 170(1) or (2) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2) alleged to have been committed in respect of a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 (c. 38)).
An offence under section 4(2) of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 alleged to have been committed in relation to a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of that Act).
Criminal Damage Offences
An offence under section 1(2) of the Criminal Damage Act 1971 (c. 48) alleged to have been committed by destroying or damaging property by fire.
An offence under section 2 of the Explosive Substances Act 1883 (c. 3).
An offence under section 3(1)(a) of the Explosive Substances Act 1883.
War Crimes and Terrorism
An offence under section 1 of the Geneva Conventions Act 1957 (c. 52).
An offence under section 56 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11).
An offence under section 1 of the Taking of Hostages Act 1982 (c. 28).
Conspiracy
An offence under section 1 of the Criminal Law Act 1977 (c. 45) of conspiracy to commit an offence listed in this Part of this Schedule.
List of offences for Northern Ireland
Offences Against the Person
Murder.
An offence under Article 3 of the Criminal Attempts and Conspiracy (Northern Ireland) Order 1983 of attempting to commit murder.
An offence under section 4 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861 (c. 100).
Manslaughter.
An offence under section 1 of the Corporate Manslaughter and Corporate Homicide Act 2007.
Kidnapping.
Sexual Offences
Rape.
An offence under Article 5 of the Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008.
An offence under section 2 of the Attempted Rape, etc., Act (Northern Ireland) 1960.
An offence under Article 3 of the Criminal Attempts and Conspiracy (Northern Ireland) Order 1983 of attempting to commit an offence under Article 5 of the Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008.
An offence under section 4 of the Criminal Law Amendment Act 1885 (c. 69) of unlawfully and carnally knowing a girl under fourteen.
An offence under section 1(1) of the Punishment of Incest Act 1908 (c. 45) alleged to have been committed with a girl under fourteen.
An offence under Article 6 of the Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008.
An offence under Article 8 of the Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 where it is alleged that the activity caused involved penetration within paragraph (4)(a) to (d) of that Article.
An offence under Article 12 of the Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008.
An offence under Article 3 of the Criminal Attempts and Conspiracy (Northern Ireland) Order 1983 of attempting to commit an offence under Article 12 of the Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008.
An offence under Article 13 of the Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008.
An offence under Article 15 of the Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 where it is alleged that an activity involving penetration within paragraph (2)(a) to (d) of that Article was caused.
An offence under Article 43 of the Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 where it is alleged that the touching involved penetration within paragraph (3)(a) to (d) of that Article.
An offence under Article 44 of the Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 where it is alleged that an activity involving penetration within paragraph (3)(a) to (d) of that Article was caused.
Drugs Offences
An offence under section 50(2) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2) alleged to have been committed in respect of a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 (c. 38)).
An offence under section 68(2) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 alleged to have been committed in respect of a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971).
An offence under section 170(1) or (2) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 alleged to have been committed in respect of a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971).
An offence under section 4(2) of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 alleged to have been committed in respect of a Class A drug (as defined by section 2 of that Act).
Criminal Damage Offences
An offence under Article 3(2) of the Criminal Damage (Northern Ireland) Order 1977 alleged to have been committed by destroying or damaging property by fire.
An offence under section 2 of the Explosive Substances Act 1883 (c. 3).
An offence under section 3(1)(a) of the Explosive Substances Act 1883.
War Crimes and Terrorism
An offence under section 1 of the Geneva Conventions Act 1957 (c. 52).
An offence under section 56 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11).
An offence under section 1 of the Taking of Hostages Act 1982 (c. 28).
Conspiracy
An offence under Article 9 of the Criminal Attempts and Conspiracy (Northern Ireland) Order 1983 of conspiracy to commit an offence listed in this Part of this Schedule.
Supplementary
A reference in this Schedule to an offence includes a reference to an offence of aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of the offence.
A reference in this Schedule to an enactment includes a reference to the enactment as enacted and as amended from time to time.
Evidence of bad character: armed forces
Sections 98 to 106, 109, 110 and 112, in so far as they are not applied in relation to proceedings before service courts by provision contained in or made under any other Act, have effect in relation to such proceedings (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) as they have effect in relation to criminal proceedings.
Section 103, as it applies in relation to proceedings before service courts, has effect with the substitution in subsection (4)(a) of “charge sheet” for “written charge or indictment”.
Section 107 has effect in relation to proceedings before the Court Martial(whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) with the following modifications.
In subsection (1)—
for a judge and jury substitute “ the Court Martial ”;
for “the court is satisfied” substitute “ the judge advocate is satisfied ”;
for the words after paragraph (b) substitute “ the judge advocate must either direct the court to acquit the defendant of the offence or, if he considers that there ought to be a retrial, discharge the court. ”
In subsection (2)—
for “jury” substitute “ court ”;
for “the court is satisfied” substitute “ the judge advocate is satisfied ”.
In subsection (3)—
for paragraph (a) substitute—;
for “the court is satisfied” substitute “ the judge advocate is satisfied ”;
for the words after paragraph (c) substitute “the judge advocate must either direct the court to acquit the defendant of the offence or, if he considers that there ought to be a rehearing, the discharge court.”
For subsection (4) substitute—
Section 110, as it applies in relation to proceedings before service courts, has effect with the substitution of the following for subsection (1)—
Section 111 has effect as if the expression“rules of court” included rules regulating the practice and procedure of service courts.
In this Schedule “service court” means—
the Court Martial;
the Summary Appeal Court;
the Service Civilian Court; or
the Court Martial Appeal Court.
Hearsay evidence: armed forces
Application to proceedings before service courts
Sections 114 to 121, 123, 124, 126, 127 to 129 and 133 and 134, in so far as they are not applied in relation to proceedings before service courts by provision contained in or made under any other Act, have effect in relation to such proceedings (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) as they have effect in relation to criminal proceedings.
In their application to such proceedings those sections have effect with the following modifications.
In section 116(2) for paragraph (c) substitute—
In section 117 insert after subsection (7)—
In section 123(4) for paragraph (a) substitute—.
In section 127—
in subsection (1)(c)—
for “the appropriate rules” substitute rules made under the Armed Forces Act 2006 or the Court Martial Appeals Act 1968;
for “section 9 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967 (c. 80)” substitute such rules;
omit subsection (7).
Section 132 has effect as if the expression “rules of court” included rules regulating the practice and procedure of service courts.
In section 134 insert after subsection (1)—
Section 122 has effect in relation to proceedings before the Court Martial(whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) with the following modifications.
In subsection (1) for “ a judge and jury” substitute “ the Court Martial ”.
In subsection (2)—
for “jury when they retire to consider their” substitute “ court when it retires to consider its ”.
for “the court” in paragraph (a) substitute “ the judge advocate ”;
for “the jury” in paragraph (b) substitute “ the court ”.
Section 125 has effect in relation to proceedings before the Court Martial(whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) with the following modifications.
In subsection (1)—
for “ a judge and jury” substitute “ the Court Martial ”;
for “the court is satisfied” substitute “ the judge advocate is satisfied ”;
for the words after paragraph (b) substitute “the judge advocate must either direct the court to acquit the defendant of the offence or, if he considers that there ought to be a retrial, the discharge court.”
In subsection (2)—
for “jury” substitute “ court ”;
for “the court is satisfied” substitute “ the judge advocate is satisfied ”.
In subsection (3)—
for paragraph (a) substitute—;
for “the court is satisfied” substitute “ the judge advocate is satisfied ”;
for the words after paragraph (b) substitute “ the judge advocate must either direct the court to acquit the defendant of the offence or, if he considers that there ought to be a rehearing, discharge the court. ”
For subsection (4) substitute—
Amendments
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Interpretation
In this Schedule, and in any provision of this Part as applied by this Schedule, “service court” means—
the Court Martial;
the Summary Appeal Court;
the Service Civilian Court; or
the Court Martial Appeal Court.
Breach, revocation or amendment of community order
Preliminary
Interpretation
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Orders made on appeal
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Breach of requirement of order
Duty to give warning
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Breach of order after warning
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Role of enforcement officer
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Issue of summons or warrant by justice of the peace
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Issue of summons or warrant by Crown Court
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Powers of magistrates' court
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Powers of Crown Court
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Restriction of powers in paragraphs 9 and 10 where treatment required
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Power to amend amounts of fines
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Supplementary
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Revocation of order
Revocation of order with or without re-sentencing: powers of magistrates' court
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Revocation of order with or without re-sentencing: powers of Crown Court
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Supplementary
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Amendment of order
Amendment by reason of change of residence
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Amendment of requirements of community order
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Amendment of treatment requirements of community order on report of practitioner
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Amendment in relation to review of drug rehabilitation requirement
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Extension of order
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Extension of unpaid work requirement
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Powers of court in relation to order following subsequent conviction
Powers of magistrates' court following subsequent conviction
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Powers of Crown Court following subsequent conviction
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Supplementary
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Transfer of community orders to Scotland or Northern Ireland
Scotland
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Northern Ireland
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General provisions
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Revocation or amendment of custody plus orders and amendment of intermittent custody orders
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Transfer of custody plus orders and intermittent custody orders to Scotland or Northern Ireland
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Breach or amendment of suspended sentence order, and effect of further conviction
Preliminary
Interpretation
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Orders made on appeal
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Breach of community requirement or conviction of further offence
Duty to give warning in relation to community requirement
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Breach of order after warning
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Role of enforcement officer
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Issue of summons or warrant by justice of the peace
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Issue of summons or warrant by Crown Court
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Powers of court on breach of community requirement or conviction of further offence
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Further provisions as to order that suspended sentence is to take effect
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Restriction of powers in paragraph 8 where treatment required
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Court by which suspended sentence may be dealt with under paragraph 8(1)(b)
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Procedure where court convicting of further offence does not deal with suspended sentence
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Power to amend amount of fine
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Amendment of suspended sentence order
Application of Part
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Cancellation of community requirements of suspended sentence order
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Amendment by reason of change of residence
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Amendment of community requirements of suspended sentence order
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Amendment of treatment requirements on report of practitioner
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Amendment in relation to review of drug rehabilitation requirement
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Extension of unpaid work requirement
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Supplementary
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Transfer of suspended sentence orders to Scotland or Northern Ireland
Scotland
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Northern Ireland
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General provisions: breach or amendment
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Supplementary
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Persons to whom copies of requirements to be provided in particular cases
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Specified offences for purposes of sections 244ZA and 325
Specified violent offences
Manslaughter.
Kidnapping.
False imprisonment.
An offence under section 4 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861 (c. 100) (soliciting murder).
An offence under section 16 of that Act (threats to kill).
An offence under section 18 of that Act (wounding with intent to cause grievous bodily harm).
An offence under section 20 of that Act (malicious wounding).
An offence under section 21 of that Act (attempting to choke, suffocate or strangle in order to commit or assist in committing an indictable offence).
An offence under section 22 of that Act (using chloroform etc. to commit or assist in the committing of any indictable offence).
An offence under section 23 of that Act (maliciously administering poison etc. so as to endanger life or inflict grievous bodily harm).
An offence under section 27 of that Act (abandoning children).
An offence under section 28 of that Act (causing bodily injury by explosives).
An offence under section 29 of that Act (using explosives etc. with intent to do grievous bodily harm).
An offence under section 30 of that Act (placing explosives with intent to do bodily injury).
An offence under section 31 of that Act (setting spring guns etc. with intent to do grievous bodily harm).
An offence under section 32 of that Act (endangering the safety of railway passengers).
An offence under section 35 of that Act (injuring persons by furious driving).
An offence under section 37 of that Act (assaulting officer preserving wreck).
An offence under section 38 of that Act (assault with intent to resist arrest).
An offence under section 47 of that Act (assault occasioning actual bodily harm).
An offence under section 2 of the Explosive Substances Act 1883 (c. 3) (causing explosion likely to endanger life or property).
An offence under section 3 of that Act (attempt to cause explosion, or making or keeping explosive with intent to endanger life or property).
An offence under section 4 of that Act (making or possession of explosive under suspicious circumstances).
An offence under section 1 of the Infant Life (Preservation) Act 1929 (c. 34) (child destruction).
An offence under section 1 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 (c. 12) (cruelty to children).
An offence under section 1 of the Infanticide Act 1938 (c. 36) (infanticide).
An offence under section 16 of the Firearms Act 1968 (c. 27) (possession of firearm with intent to endanger life).
An offence under section 16A of that Act (possession of firearm with intent to cause fear of violence).
An offence under section 17(1) of that Act (use of firearm to resist arrest).
An offence under section 18 of that Act (carrying a firearm with criminal intent).
An offence under section 8 of the Theft Act 1968 (c. 60) (robbery or assault with intent to rob).
An offence under section 9 of that Act of burglary with intent to—
inflict grievous bodily harm on a person, or
do unlawful damage to a building or anything in it.
An offence under section 10 of that Act (aggravated burglary).
An offence under section 12A of that Act (aggravated vehicle-taking) involving an accident which caused the death of any person.
An offence of arson under section 1 of the Criminal Damage Act 1971 (c. 48).
An offence under section 1(2) of that Act (destroying or damaging property) other than an offence of arson.
An offence under section 1 of the Taking of Hostages Act 1982 (c. 28) (hostage-taking).
An offence under section 1 of the Aviation Security Act 1982 (c. 36) (hijacking).
An offence under section 2 of that Act (destroying, damaging or endangering safety of aircraft).
An offence under section 3 of that Act (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safety of aircraft).
An offence under section 4 of that Act (offences in relation to certain dangerous articles).
An offence under section 127 of the Mental Health Act 1983 (c. 20) (ill-treatment of patients).
An offence under section 1 of the Prohibition of Female Circumcision Act 1985 (c. 38) (prohibition of female circumcision).
An offence under section 1 of the Public Order Act 1986 (c. 64) (riot).
An offence under section 2 of that Act (violent disorder).
An offence under section 3 of that Act (affray).
An offence under section 134 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 (c. 33) (torture).
An offence under section 1 of the Road Traffic Act 1988 (c. 52) (causing death by dangerous driving).
An offence under section 3ZC of that Act (causing death by driving: disqualified drivers).
An offence under section 3A of that Act (causing death by careless driving when under influence of drink or drugs).
An offence under section 1 of the Aviation and Maritime Security Act 1990 (c. 31) (endangering safety at aerodromes).
An offence under section 9 of that Act (hijacking of ships).
An offence under section 10 of that Act (seizing or exercising control of fixed platforms).
An offence under section 11 of that Act (destroying fixed platforms or endangering their safety).
An offence under section 12 of that Act (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safe navigation).
An offence under section 13 of that Act (offences involving threats).
An offence under Part II of the Channel Tunnel (Security) Order 1994 (S.I. 1994/570) (offences relating to Channel Tunnel trains and the tunnel system).
An offence under section 29 of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (c. 37) (racially or religiously aggravated assaults).
An offence falling within section 31(1)(a) or (b) of that Act (racially or religiously aggravated offences under section 4 or 4A of the Public Order Act 1986 (c. 64)).
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An offence under section 47 of the Anti-Terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (use etc of nuclear weapons).
An offence under section 50 of that Act (assisting or inducing certain weapons-related acts overseas).
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An offence under section 1 of the Female Genital Mutilation Act 2003 (c. 31) (female genital mutilation).
An offence under section 2 of that Act (assisting a girl to mutilate her own genitalia).
An offence under section 3 of that Act (assisting a non-UK person to mutilate overseas a girl’s genitalia).
An offence under section 5 of the Domestic Violence, Crime and Victims Act 2004 (causing or allowing a child or vulnerable adult to die or suffer serious physical harm).
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An offence under section 75A of the Serious Crime Act 2015 (strangulation or suffocation).
An offence under section 1 of the Modern Slavery Act 2015 (slavery, servitude and forced or compulsory labour).
An offence under section 2 of that Act (human trafficking) which is not within Part 2 of this Schedule.
An offence under paragraph 1 of Schedule 4 to the Space Industry Act 2018 (hijacking of spacecraft).
An offence under paragraph 2 of that Schedule (destroying, damaging or endangering the safety of spacecraft).
An offence under paragraph 3 of that Schedule (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safety of spacecraft).
An offence under paragraph 4 of that Schedule (endangering safety at spaceports).
An offence under paragraph 5 of that Schedule (offences in relation to certain dangerous articles).
Aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of an offence specified in the preceding paragraphs of this Part of this Schedule.
An attempt to commit such an offence.
Conspiracy to commit such an offence.
Incitement to commit such an offence.
An offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 in relation to which an offence specified in the preceding paragraphs of this Part of this Schedule is the offence (or one of the offences) which the person intended or believed would be committed.
An attempt to commit murder.
Conspiracy to commit murder.
Incitement to commit murder.
An offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 in relation to which murder is the offence (or one of the offences) which the person intended or believed would be committed.
Specified sexual offences
An offence under section 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 (c. 69) (rape).
An offence under section 2 of that Act (procurement of woman by threats).
An offence under section 3 of that Act (procurement of woman by false pretences).
An offence under section 4 of that Act (administering drugs to obtain or facilitate intercourse).
An offence under section 5 of that Act (intercourse with girl under thirteen).
An offence under section 6 of that Act (intercourse with girl under 16).
An offence under section 7 of that Act (intercourse with a defective).
An offence under section 9 of that Act (procurement of a defective).
An offence under section 10 of that Act (incest by a man).
An offence under section 11 of that Act (incest by a woman).
An offence under section 14 of that Act (indecent assault on a woman).
An offence under section 15 of that Act (indecent assault on a man).
An offence under section 16 of that Act (assault with intent to commit buggery).
An offence under section 17 of that Act (abduction of woman by force or for the sake of her property).
An offence under section 19 of that Act (abduction of unmarried girl under eighteen from parent or guardian).
An offence under section 20 of that Act (abduction of unmarried girl under sixteen from parent or guardian).
An offence under section 21 of that Act (abduction of defective from parent or guardian).
An offence under section 22 of that Act (causing prostitution of women).
An offence under section 23 of that Act (procuration of girl under twenty-one).
An offence under section 24 of that Act (detention of woman in brothel).
An offence under section 25 of that Act (permitting girl under thirteen to use premises for intercourse).
An offence under section 26 of that Act (permitting girl under sixteen to use premises for intercourse).
An offence under section 27 of that Act (permitting defective to use premises for intercourse).
An offence under section 28 of that Act (causing or encouraging the prostitution of, intercourse with or indecent assault on girl under sixteen).
An offence under section 29 of that Act (causing or encouraging prostitution of defective).
An offence under section 32 of that Act (soliciting by men).
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An offence under section 33A of that Act (keeping a brothel used for prostitution).
An offence under section 128 of the Mental Health Act 1959 (c. 72) (sexual intercourse with patients).
An offence under section 1 of the Indecency with Children Act 1960 (c. 33) (indecent conduct towards young child).
An offence under section 4 of the Sexual Offences Act 1967 (c. 60) (procuring others to commit homosexual acts).
An offence under section 5 of that Act (living on earnings of male prostitution).
An offence under section 9 of the Theft Act 1968 (c. 60) of burglary with intent to commit rape.
An offence under section 54 of the Criminal Law Act 1977 (c. 45) (inciting girl under sixteen to have incestuous sexual intercourse).
An offence under section 1 of the Protection of Children Act 1978 (c. 37) (indecent photographs of children).
An offence under section 170 of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2) (penalty for fraudulent evasion of duty etc.) in relation to goods prohibited to be imported under section 42 of the Customs Consolidation Act 1876 (c. 36) (indecent or obscene articles).
An offence under section 160 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 (c. 33) (possession of indecent photograph of a child).
An offence under section 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 (c. 42) (rape).
An offence under section 2 of that Act (assault by penetration).
An offence under section 3 of that Act (sexual assault).
An offence under section 4 of that Act (causing a person to engage in sexual activity without consent).
An offence under section 5 of that Act (rape of a child under 13).
An offence under section 6 of that Act (assault of a child under 13 by penetration).
An offence under section 7 of that Act (sexual assault of a child under 13).
An offence under section 8 of that Act (causing or inciting a child under 13 to engage in sexual activity).
An offence under section 9 of that Act (sexual activity with a child).
An offence under section 10 of that Act (causing or inciting a child to engage in sexual activity).
An offence under section 11 of that Act (engaging in sexual activity in the presence of a child).
An offence under section 12 of that Act (causing a child to watch a sexual act).
An offence under section 13 of that Act (child sex offences committed by children or young persons).
An offence under section 14 of that Act (arranging or facilitating commission of a child sex offence).
An offence under section 15 of that Act (meeting a child following sexual grooming etc.).
An offence under section 15A of that Act (sexual communication with a child).
An offence under section 16 of that Act (abuse of position of trust: sexual activity with a child).
An offence under section 17 of that Act (abuse of position of trust: causing or inciting a child to engage in sexual activity).
An offence under section 18 of that Act (abuse of position of trust: sexual activity in the presence of a child).
An offence under section 19 of that Act (abuse of position of trust: causing a child to watch a sexual act).
An offence under section 25 of that Act (sexual activity with a child family member).
An offence under section 26 of that Act (inciting a child family member to engage in sexual activity).
An offence under section 30 of that Act (sexual activity with a person with a mental disorder impeding choice).
An offence under section 31 of that Act (causing or inciting a person with a mental disorder impeding choice to engage in sexual activity).
An offence under section 32 of that Act (engaging in sexual activity in the presence of a person with a mental disorder impeding choice).
An offence under section 33 of that Act (causing a person with a mental disorder impeding choice to watch a sexual act).
An offence under section 34 of that Act (inducement, threat or deception to procure sexual activity with a person with a mental disorder).
An offence under section 35 of that Act (causing a person with a mental disorder to engage in or agree to engage in sexual activity by inducement, threat or deception).
An offence under section 36 of that Act (engaging in sexual activity in the presence, procured by inducement, threat or deception, of a person with a mental disorder).
An offence under section 37 of that Act (causing a person with a mental disorder to watch a sexual act by inducement, threat or deception).
An offence under section 38 of that Act (care workers: sexual activity with a person with a mental disorder).
An offence under section 39 of that Act (care workers: causing or inciting sexual activity).
An offence under section 40 of that Act (care workers: sexual activity in the presence of a person with a mental disorder).
An offence under section 41 of that Act (care workers: causing a person with a mental disorder to watch a sexual act).
An offence under section 47 of that Act (paying for sexual services of a child).
An offence under section 48 of that Act (causing or inciting sexual exploitation of a child ).
An offence under section 49 of that Act (controlling a child in relation to sexual exploitation ).
An offence under section 50 of that Act (arranging or facilitating sexual exploitation of a child ).
An offence under section 52 of that Act (causing or inciting prostitution for gain).
An offence under section 53 of that Act (controlling prostitution for gain).
An offence under section 57 of that Act (trafficking into the UK for sexual exploitation).
An offence under section 58 of that Act (trafficking within the UK for sexual exploitation).
An offence under section 59 of that Act (trafficking out of the UK for sexual exploitation).
An offence under section 59A of that Act (trafficking for sexual exploitation).
An offence under section 61 of that Act (administering a substance with intent).
An offence under section 62 of that Act (committing an offence with intent to commit a sexual offence).
An offence under section 63 of that Act (trespass with intent to commit a sexual offence).
An offence under section 64 of that Act (sex with an adult relative: penetration).
An offence under section 65 of that Act (sex with an adult relative: consenting to penetration).
An offence under section 66 of that Act (exposure).
An offence under section 66A of that Act (sending etc photograph or film of genitals).
An offence under section 66B(2) or(3) of that Act (sharing intimate photograph or film with intent to cause alarm, distress or humiliation or for purpose of obtaining sexual gratification).
An offence under section 67 of that Act (voyeurism).
An offence under section 69 of that Act (intercourse with an animal).
An offence under section 70 of that Act (sexual penetration of a corpse).
An offence under section 2 of the Modern Slavery Act 2015 (human trafficking) committed with a view to exploitation that consists of or includes behaviour within section 3(3) of that Act (sexual exploitation).
Aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of an offence specified in this Part of this Schedule.
An attempt to commit such an offence.
Conspiracy to commit such an offence.
Incitement to commit such an offence.
An offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 in relation to which an offence specified in this Part of this Schedule is the offence (or one of the offences) which the person intended or believed would be committed.
Specified Terrorism Offences
An offence under section 11 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (membership of a proscribed organisation).
An offence under section 12 of that Act (inviting support for a proscribed organisation).
An offence under section 54 of that Act (weapons training).
An offence under section 56 of that Act (directing a terrorist organisation).
An offence under section 57 of that Act (possession of article for terrorist purposes).
An offence under section 58 of that Act (collection of information likely to be of use to a terrorist).
An offence under section 58A of that Act (publishing information about members of the armed forces etc).
An offence under section 58B of that Act (entering or remaining in a designated area).
An offence under section 59 of that Act (inciting terrorism overseas).
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An offence under section 113 of the Anti-Terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001(use of noxious substance or thing to cause harm or intimidate).
An offence under section 1 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (encouragement of terrorism).
An offence under section 2 of that Act (dissemination of terrorist publications).
An offence under section 5 of that Act (preparation of terrorist acts).
An offence under section 6 of that Act (training for terrorism).
An offence under section 8 of that Act (attendance at a place used for terrorist training).
An offence under section 9 of that Act (making or possession of radioactive device or material).
An offence under section 10 of that Act (misuse of radioactive device or material for terrorist purposes etc).
An offence under section 11 of that Act (terrorist threats relating to radioactive devices etc).
Aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of an offence specified in the preceding paragraphs of this Part of this Schedule.
An attempt to commit such an offence.
Conspiracy to commit such an offence.
Incitement to commit such an offence.
An offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 in relation to which an offence specified in the preceding paragraphs of this Part of this Schedule is the offence (or one of the offences) which the person intended or believed would be committed.
Offences specified for the purposes of sections 225(3A) and 227(2A)
Offences under the law of England and Wales
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Offences under the law of Scotland
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Offences under the law of Northern Ireland
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Offences under service law
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Interpretation
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Offences listed for the purposes of section 246A
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Further offences under the law of England and Wales listed for the purposes of section 246A
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Offences under service law listed for the purposes of section 246A
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Offences under the law of Scotland, Northern Ireland or a member State other than the United Kingdom listed for the purposes of sections 224A(4) and 226A
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Interpretation
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Rape.
Clandestine injury to women.
Abduction of woman or girl with intent to rape or ravish.
Assault with intent to rape or ravish.
Indecent assault.
Lewd, indecent or libidinous behaviour or practices.
Shameless indecency.
Sodomy.
An offence under section 170 of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2) in relation to goods prohibited to be imported under section 42 of the Customs Consolidation Act 1876 (c. 36), but only where the prohibited goods include indecent photographs of persons.
An offence under section 52 of the Civic Government (Scotland) Act 1982 (c. 45) (taking and distribution of indecent images of children).
An offence under section 52A of that Act (possession of indecent images of children).
An offence under section 1 of the Criminal Law (Consolidation) (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 39) (incest).
An offence under section 2 of that Act (intercourse with a stepchild).
An offence under section 3 of that Act (intercourse with child under 16 by person in position of trust).
An offence under section 5 of that Act (unlawful intercourse with girl under 16).
An offence under section 6 of that Act (indecent behaviour towards girl between 12 and 16).
An offence under section 8 of that Act (detention of woman in brothel or other premises).
An offence under section 10 of that Act (person having parental responsibilities causing or encouraging sexual activity in relation to a girl under 16).
An offence under subsection (5) of section 13 of that Act (homosexual offences).
An offence under section 3 of the Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act 2000 (c. 44) (abuse of position of trust).
An offence of—
attempting, conspiring or inciting another to commit any offence specified in the preceding paragraphs, or
aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of any offence specified in paragraphs 9 to 20.
Any offence (other than an offence specified in any of the preceding paragraphs) inferring personal violence.
Violent offences
Manslaughter.
Kidnapping.
Riot.
Affray.
False imprisonment.
An offence under section 4 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861 (c. 100) (soliciting murder).
An offence under section 16 of that Act (threats to kill).
An offence under section 18 of that Act (wounding with intent to cause grievous bodily harm).
An offence under section 20 of that Act (malicious wounding).
An offence under section 21 of that Act (attempting to choke, suffocate or strangle in order to commit or assist in committing an indictable offence).
An offence under section 22 of that Act (using chloroform etc. to commit or assist in the committing of any indictable offence).
An offence under section 23 of that Act (maliciously administering poison etc. so as to endanger life or inflict grievous bodily harm).
An offence under section 27 of that Act (abandoning children).
An offence under section 28 of that Act (causing bodily injury by explosives).
An offence under section 29 of that Act (using explosives etc. with intent to do grievous bodily harm).
An offence under section 30 of that Act (placing explosives with intent to do bodily injury).
An offence under section 31 of that Act (setting spring guns etc. with intent to do grievous bodily harm).
An offence under section 32 of that Act (endangering the safety of railway passengers).
An offence under section 35 of that Act (injuring persons by furious driving).
An offence under section 37 of that Act (assaulting officer preserving wreck).
An offence under section 47 of that Act of assault occasioning actual bodily harm.
An offence under section 2 of the Explosive Substances Act 1883 (c. 3) (causing explosion likely to endanger life or property).
An offence under section 3 of that Act (attempt to cause explosion, or making or keeping explosive with intent to endanger life or property).
An offence under section 25 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 1945 (c. 15) (child destruction).
An offence under section 1 of the Infanticide Act (Northern Ireland) 1939 (c. 5) (infanticide).
An offence under section 7(1)(b) of the Criminal Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act (Northern Ireland) 1968 (c. 28) (assault with intent to resist arrest).
An offence under section 20 of the Children and Young Persons Act (Northern Ireland) 1968 (c. 34) (cruelty to children).
An offence under section 8 of the Theft Act (Northern Ireland) 1969 (c. 16) (robbery or assault with intent to rob).
An offence under section 9 of that Act of burglary with intent to—
inflict grievous bodily harm on a person, or
do unlawful damage to a building or anything in it.
An offence under section 10 of that Act (aggravated burglary).
An offence of arson under Article 3 of the Criminal Damage Northern Ireland) Order 1977 (S.I. 1977/426 (N.I. 4)).
An offence under Article 3(2) of that Order (destroying or damaging property) other than an offence of arson.
An offence under Article 58(1) of the Firearms (Northern Ireland) Order 2004 (S.I. 2004/702 (N.I. 3)) (possession of firearm with intent to endanger life).
An offence under Article 58(2) of that Order (possession of firearm with intent to cause fear of violence).
An offence under Article 59(1) of that Order (use of firearm to resist arrest).
An offence under Article 59(2) of that Order (possession of firearm at time of committing or being arrested for an offence specified in Schedule 4 to that Order).
An offence under Article 60 of that Order (carrying a firearm with criminal intent).
An offence under section 1 of the Taking of Hostages Act 1982 (c. 28) (hostage-taking).
An offence under section 1 of the Aviation Security Act 1982 (c. 36) (hijacking).
An offence under section 2 of that Act (destroying, damaging or endangering safety of aircraft).
An offence under section 3 of that Act (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safety of aircraft).
An offence under section 4 of that Act (offences in relation to certain dangerous articles).
An offence under section 1 of the Prohibition of Female Circumcision Act 1985 (c. 38) (prohibition of female circumcision).
An offence under Article 121 of the Mental Health (Northern Ireland) Order 1986 (S.I. 1986/595 (N.I.4) (ill-treatment of patients).
An offence under section 134 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 (c. 33) (torture).
An offence under section 1 of the Aviation and Maritime Security Act 1990 (c. 31) (endangering safety at aerodromes).
An offence under section 9 of that Act (hijacking of ships).
An offence under section 10 of that Act (seizing or exercising control of fixed platforms).
An offence under section 11 of that Act (destroying fixed platforms or endangering their safety).
An offence under section 12 of that Act (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safe navigation).
An offence under section 13 of that Act (offences involving threats).
An offence under Part II of the Channel Tunnel (Security) Order 1994 (S.I. 1994/570) (offences relating to Channel Tunnel trains and the tunnel system).
An offence under Article 9 of the Road Traffic (Northern Ireland) Order 1995 (S.I. 1995/2994 (N.I. 18)) (causing death or grievous bodily injury by dangerous driving).
An offence under Article 14 of that Order (causing death or grievous bodily injury by careless driving when under the influence of drink or drugs).
An offence under Article 6 of the Protection from Harassment (Northern Ireland) Order 1997 (S.I. 1997/1180 (N.I. 9)) (putting people in fear of violence).
An offence under section 66 of the Police (Northern Ireland) Act 1998 (c. 32) (assaulting or obstructing a constable etc.).
An offence under section 1 of the Female Genital Mutilation Act 2003 (c. 31) (female genital mutilation).
An offence under section 2 of that Act (assisting a girl to mutilate her own genitalia).
An offence under section 3 of that Act (assisting a non-UK person to mutilate overseas a girl’s genitalia).
An offence under section 5 of the Domestic Violence, Crime and Victims Act 2004 (causing or allowing the death of a child or vulnerable adult).
An offence of—
aiding, abetting, counselling, procuring or inciting the commission of an offence specified in this Part of this Schedule,
conspiring to commit an offence so specified, or
attempting to commit an offence so specified.
An attempt to commit murder or a conspiracy to commit murder.
Sexual offences
Rape.
Indecent assault upon a female.
An offence under section 52 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861 (c. 100) (indecent assault upon a female).
An offence under section 53 of that Act (abduction of woman etc.).
An offence under section 54 of that Act (abduction of woman by force).
An offence under section 55 of that Act (abduction of unmarried girl under 16 from parent or guardian).
An offence under section 2 of the Criminal Law Amendment Act 1885 (c. 69) (procuration).
An offence under section 3 of that Act (procurement of woman or girl by threats etc. or administering drugs).
An offence under section 4 of that Act (intercourse or attempted intercourse with girl under 14).
An offence under section 5 of that Act (intercourse or attempted intercourse with girl under 17).
An offence under section 6 of that Act (permitting girl under 17 to use premises for intercourse).
An offence under section 7 of that Act (abduction of girl under 18 from parent or guardian).
An offence under section 8 of that Act (unlawful detention of woman or girl in brothel etc.).
An offence under section 1 of the Vagrancy Act 1898 (c. 39) (living on earnings of prostitution or soliciting or importuning in a public place).
An offence under section 1 of the Punishment of Incest Act 1908 (c. 45) (incest by a man).
An offence under section 2 of that Act (incest by a woman).
An offence under section 21 of the Children and Young Persons Act (Northern Ireland) 1968 (c. 34) (causing or encouraging seduction or prostitution of girl under 17).
An offence under section 22 of that Act (indecent conduct towards child).
An offence under section 9 of the Theft Act (Northern Ireland) 1969 (c. 16) of burglary with intent to commit rape.
An offence under Article 3 of the Protection of Children (Northern Ireland) Order 1978 (S.I. 1978/1047 (N.I. 17)) (indecent photographs of children).
An offence under section 170 of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2) (penalty for fraudulent evasion of duty etc.) in relation to goods prohibited to be imported under section 42 of the Customs Consolidation Act 1876 (c. 36) (indecent or obscene articles).
An offence under Article 9 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 1980 (S.I. 1980/704 (N.I. 6)) (inciting girl under 16 to have incestuous sexual intercourse).
An offence under Article 7 of the Homosexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 1982 (S.I. 1982/1536 (N.I. 19)) (procuring others to commit homosexual acts).
An offence under Article 8 of that Order (living on earnings of male prostitution).
An offence under Article 122 of the Mental Health (Northern Ireland) Order 1986 (S.I. 1986/595 (N.I. 4)) (protection of women suffering from severe mental handicap).
An offence under Article 123 of that Order (protection of patients).
An offence under Article 15 of the Criminal Justice (Evidence, etc.) (Northern Ireland) Order 1988 (S.I. 1988/1847 (N.I. 17) (possession of indecent photograph of a child).
An offence under section 15 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 (c. 42) (meeting a child following sexual grooming etc.).
An offence under section 16 of that Act (abuse of position of trust: sexual activity with a child).
An offence under section 17 of that Act (abuse of position of trust: causing or inciting a child to engage in sexual activity).
An offence under section 18 of that Act (abuse of position of trust: sexual activity in the presence of a child).
An offence under section 19 of that Act (abuse of position of trust: causing a child to watch a sexual act).
An offence under section 47 of that Act (paying for sexual services of a child).
An offence under section 48 of that Act (causing or inciting child prostitution or pornography).
An offence under section 49 of that Act (controlling a child prostitute or a child involved in pornography).
An offence under section 50 of that Act (arranging or facilitating child prostitution or pornography).
An offence under section 52 of that Act (causing or inciting prostitution for gain).
An offence under section 53 of that Act (controlling prostitution for gain).
An offence under section 57 of that Act (trafficking into the UK for sexual exploitation).
An offence under section 58 of that Act (trafficking within the UK for sexual exploitation).
An offence under section 59 of that Act (trafficking out of the UK for sexual exploitation).
An offence under section 66 of that Act (exposure).
An offence under section 67 of that Act (voyeurism).
An offence under section 69 of that Act (intercourse with an animal).
An offence under section 70 of that Act (sexual penetration of a corpse).
An offence under Article 20 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 2003 (S.I. 2003/1247 (N.I. 13)) (assault with intent to commit buggery).
An offence under Article 21 of that Order (indecent assault on a male).
An offence of—
aiding, abetting, counselling, procuring or inciting the commission of an offence specified in this Part of this Schedule,
conspiring to commit an offence so specified, or
attempting to commit an offence so specified.
Release of prisoners serving sentences of imprisonment or detention for public protection
Release on licence
Section 31 of the Crime (Sentences) Act 1997 (c. 43) (duration and conditions of licences for life prisoners), is amended as follows.
In subsection (1) (licence to remain in force until death), after “life prisoner” there is inserted “ , other than a prisoner to whom section 31A below applies,/text ”.
After that subsection there is inserted—
After that section there is inserted—
In section 34(2) of that Act (meaning of “life sentence”), after paragraph (c) there is inserted—
Determination of tariffs
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Sentence under section 236A: offences
Terrorism offences
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Sexual offences
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Accessories and inchoate offences
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Abolished offences
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Meaning of “terrorist connection”
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Offences relevant to public protection decisions
Common law offences
Kidnapping.
Murder.
Manslaughter.
Abduction.
Assault and poisoning.
Assault by explosive device.
Assault to severe injury.
Assault with intent to rob.
Culpable homicide.
Malicious mischief.
Poisoning.
Robbery.
Wilful fire-raising.
Affray.
Riot.
Statutory offences
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Offences against the Person Act 1861—
section 4 (soliciting murder);
section 16 (threats to kill);
section 18 (wounding with intent to cause grievous bodily harm);
section 20 (malicious wounding);
section 21 (attempting to choke, suffocate or strangle in order to commit or assist in committing an indictable offence);
section 22 (using chloroform etc to commit or assist in the committing of any indictable offence);
section 23 (maliciously administering poison etc so as to endanger life or inflict grievous bodily harm);
section 27 (abandoning children);
section 28 (causing bodily injury by explosives);
section 29 (using explosives etc with intent to do grievous bodily harm);
section 30 (placing explosives with intent to do bodily injury);
section 31 (setting spring guns etc with intent to do grievous bodily harm);
section 32 (endangering the safety of railway passengers);
section 35 (injuring persons by furious driving);
section 37 (assaulting officer preserving wreck);
section 38 (assault with intent to resist arrest);
section 47 (assault occasioning actual bodily harm).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Explosive Substances Act 1883—
section 2 (causing explosion likely to endanger life or property);
section 3 (attempt to cause explosion, or making or keeping explosive with intent to endanger life or property);
section 4 (making or possession of explosive under suspicious circumstances);
section 5 (punishment of accessories to offences of causing or attempting to cause explosions or making or possessing explosives).
An offence under section 1 of the Infant Life (Preservation) Act 1929 (child destruction).
An offence under section 1 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 (cruelty to children).
An offence under section 1 of the Infanticide Act 1938 (infanticide).
An offence under section 33A of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 (keeping a brothel used for prostitution).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Firearms Act 1968—
section 16 (possession of firearm with intent to injure);
section 16A (possession of firearm with intent to cause fear of violence);
section 17(1) (use of firearm to resist arrest);
section 17(2) (possession of firearm at time of committing or being arrested for offence specified in Schedule 1 to that Act);
section 18 (carrying a firearm with criminal intent).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Theft Act 1968—
section 8 (robbery or assault with intent to rob);
section 9, where the offence is burglary with intent to—
inflict grievous bodily harm on a person, or
do unlawful damage to a building or anything in it;
section 10 (aggravated burglary);
section 12A (aggravated vehicle-taking).
An offence of arson under section 1 of the Criminal Damage Act 1971.
An offence under section 1(2) of that Act (destroying or damaging property), other than an offence of arson.
An offence under section 1 of the Biological Weapons Act 1974 (developing certain biological agents and toxins or biological weapons).
An offence under section 1 of the Protection of Children Act 1978 (indecent photographs of children).
An offence under section 170 of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (penalty for fraudulent evasion of duty etc) in relation to goods prohibited to be imported under section 42 of the Customs Consolidation Act 1876 (indecent or obscene articles).
An offence under section 1 of the Taking of Hostages Act 1982 (hostage-taking).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Aviation Security Act 1982—
section 1 (hijacking);
section 2 (destroying, damaging or endangering safety of aircraft);
section 3 (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safety of aircraft);
section 4 (offences in relation to certain dangerous articles);
section 6(2) (inducing or assisting the commission of offences relating to safety of aircraft).
An offence under section 2 of the Nuclear Material (Offences) Act 1983 (preparatory acts and threats).
An offence under section 127 of the Mental Health Act 1983 (ill-treatment of patients).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Public Order Act 1986—
section 1 (riot);
section 2 (violent disorder);
section 3 (affray).
An offence under either of the following provisions of the Criminal Justice Act 1988—
section 134 (torture);
section 160 (possession of indecent photograph of a child).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Road Traffic Act 1988—
section 1 (causing death by dangerous driving);
section 3ZC (causing death by driving: disqualified drivers);
section 3A (causing death by careless driving when under influence of drink or drugs).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Aviation and Maritime Security Act 1990—
section 1 (endangering safety at aerodromes);
section 9 (hijacking of ships);
section 10 (seizing or exercising control of fixed platforms);
section 11 (destroying ships or fixed platforms or endangering their safety);
section 12 (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safe navigation);
section 13 (offences involving threats);
section 14(4) (inducing or assisting the commission of offences relating to hijacking of ships, or destroying ships or fixed platforms or endangering their safety).
An offence under Part 2 of the Channel Tunnel (Security) Order 1994 (S.I. 1994/570) (offences relating to Channel Tunnel trains and the tunnel system).
An offence under either of the following provisions of the Chemical Weapons Act 1996—
section 2 (use etc of chemical weapons);
section 11 (premises or equipment used for producing chemical weapons).
An offence under either of the following provisions of the Protection from Harassment Act 1997—
section 4 (putting people in fear of violence);
section 4A (stalking involving fear of violence or serious alarm or distress).
An offence under section 29 of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (racially or religiously aggravated assaults).
An offence falling within section 31(1)(a) or (b) of that Act (racially or religiously aggravated offences under section 4 or 4A of the Public Order Act 1986).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2000—
section 11 (membership of a proscribed organisation);
section 12 (inviting support for a proscribed organisation etc);
section 15 (fund-raising);
section 16 (use or possession of money or property for terrorist purposes);
section 17 (involvement in terrorist funding arrangements);
section 17A (insurance against payments made in response to terrorist demands);
section 18 (laundering of terrorist property);
section 19 (failure to disclose professional belief or suspicion about terrorist offences);
section 21A (failure in regulated sectors to disclose knowledge or suspicion about terrorist offences);
section 38B (failure to disclose information about acts of terrorism);
section 39 (disclosure of information prejudicial to a terrorist investigation etc);
section 54 (weapons training);
section 56 (directing terrorist organisation);
section 57 (possession of article for terrorist purposes);
section 58 (collection of information likely to be of use to a terrorist);
section 58A (publishing information about members of the armed forces);
section 58B (entering or remaining in a designated area);
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001—
section 47 (use etc of nuclear weapons);
section 50 (assisting or inducing certain weapons-related acts overseas);
section 113 (use of noxious substance or thing to cause harm or intimidate).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Female Genital Mutilation Act 2003—
section 1 (female genital mutilation);
section 2 (assisting a girl to mutilate her own genitalia);
section 3 (assisting a non-UK person to mutilate overseas a girl's genitalia).
An offence under Part 1 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 (sexual offences), other than an offence under any of the following provisions of that Act—
section 51A (soliciting);
section 53A (paying for sexual services of a prostitute subjected to force etc);
section 71 (sexual activity in a public lavatory).
An offence under section 5 of the Domestic Violence, Crime and Victims Act 2004 (causing or allowing a child or vulnerable adult to die or suffer serious physical harm).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2006—
section 1 (encouragement of terrorism);
section 2 (dissemination of terrorist publications);
section 5 (preparation of terrorist acts);
section 6 (training for terrorism);
section 8 (attendance at a place used for terrorist training);
section 9 (making or possession of radioactive device or material);
section 10 (misuse of radioactive device or material for terrorist purposes etc);
section 11 (terrorist threats relating to radioactive devices etc).
An offence under section 54 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (breach of police notification requirements etc).
An offence under section 23 of the Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011 (breach of notices imposing terrorism prevention and investigation measures).
An offence under section 10 of the Counter-Terrorism and Security Act 2015 (breach of temporary exclusion order).
An offence under section 75A of the Serious Crime Act 2015 (strangulation or suffocation).
An offence under either of the following provisions of the Modern Slavery Act 2015—
section 1 (slavery, servitude and forced or compulsory labour);
section 2 (human trafficking).
An offence under any of the following paragraphs of Schedule 4 to the Space Industry Act 2018—
paragraph 1 (hijacking of spacecraft);
paragraph 2 (destroying, damaging or endangering the safety of spacecraft);
paragraph 3 (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safety of spacecraft);
paragraph 4 (endangering safety at spaceports).
The Parole Board: supplementary provisions
Status and Capacity
The Board is not to be regarded as the servant or agent of the Crown or as enjoying any status, immunity or privilege of the Crown; and the Board’s property is not to be regarded as property of, or held on behalf of, the Crown.
It is within the capacity of the Board as a statutory corporation to do such things and enter into such transactions as are incidental to or conducive to the discharge of—
its functions under Chapter 6 of Part 12 in respect of fixed-term prisoners, and
its functions under Chapter 2 of Part 2 of the Crime (Sentences) Act 1997 (c. 43) in relation to life prisoners within the meaning of that Chapter.
Membership
The Board is to consist of a chairman and not less than five other members appointed by the Secretary of State.
The Board must include among its members—
a person who holds or has held judicial office;
a registered medical practitioner who is a psychiatrist;
a person appearing to the Secretary of State to have knowledge and experience of the supervision or after-care of discharged prisoners; ...
a person appearing to the Secretary of State to have made a study of the causes of delinquency or the treatment of offenders; and
a person appearing to the Secretary of State to have experience of law enforcement in a part of the United Kingdom.
“Law enforcement” means the prevention, detection or investigation of offences.
A member of the Board—and a person who ceases to hold office as a member of the Board is eligible for re-appointment.
holds and vacates office in accordance with the terms of his appointment;
may resign his office by notice in writing addressed to the Secretary of State;
Payments to members
The Board may pay to each member such remuneration and allowances as the Secretary of State may determine.
The Board may pay or make provision for paying to or in respect of any member such sums by way of pension, allowances or gratuities as the Secretary of State may determine.
If a person ceases to be a member otherwise than on the expiry of his term of office and it appears to the Secretary of State that there are special circumstances that make it right that he should receive compensation, the Secretary of State may direct the Board to make to that person a payment of such amount as the Secretary of State may determine.
A determination or direction of the Secretary of State under this paragraph requires the approval of the Treasury.
Proceedings
Subject to the provisions of section 239(5), the arrangements relating to meetings of the Board are to be such as the Board may determine.
The arrangements may provide for the discharge, under the general direction of the Board, of any of the Board’s functions by a committee or by one or more of the members or employees of the Board.
The validity of the proceedings of the Board are not to be affected by any vacancy among the members or by any defect in the appointment of a member.
Staff
The Board may appoint such number of employees as it may determine.
The remuneration and other conditions of service of the persons appointed under this paragraph are to be determined by the Board.
Any determination under sub-paragraph (1) or (2) requires the approval of the Secretary of State given with the consent of the Treasury.
The Employers' Liability (Compulsory Insurance) Act 1969 (c. 57) shall not require insurance to be effected by the Board.
Employment with the Board shall continue to be included among the kinds of employment to which a scheme under section 1 of the Superannuation Act 1972 (c. 11) can apply, and accordingly in Schedule 1 to that Act (in which those kinds of employment are listed) at the end of the list of Other Bodies there shall continue to be inserted— “ Parole Board. ”.
The Board shall pay to the Treasury, at such times as the Treasury may direct, such sums as the Treasury may determine in respect of the increase attributable to this paragraph in the sums payable under the Superannuation Act 1972 out of money provided by Parliament.
Financial provisions
The Secretary of State shall pay to the Board—
any expenses incurred or to be incurred by the Board by virtue of paragraph 3 or 5; and
with the consent of the Treasury, such sums as he thinks fit for enabling the Board to meet other expenses.
Any sums required by the Secretary of State for making payments under sub-paragraph (1) are to be paid out of money provided by Parliament.
Authentication of Board’s seal
The application of the seal of the Board is to be authenticated by the signature of the Chairman or some other person authorised for the purpose.
Presumption of authenticity of documents issued by Board
Any document purporting to be an instrument issued by the Board and to be duly executed under the seal of the Board or to be signed on behalf of the Board shall be received in evidence and shall be deemed to be such an instrument unless the contrary is shown.
Accounts and audit
It is the duty of the Board—
to keep proper accounts and proper records in relation to the accounts;
to prepare in respect of each financial year a statement of accounts in such form as the Secretary of State may direct with the approval of the Treasury; and
to send copies of each such statement to the Secretary of State and the Comptroller and Auditor General not later than 31st August next following the end of the financial year to which the statement relates.
The Comptroller and Auditor General shall examine, certify and report on each statement of accounts sent to him by the Board and shall lay a copy of every such statement and of his report before each House of Parliament.
In this paragraph and paragraph 11 “financial year” means a period of 12 months ending with 31st March.
Reports
The Board must as soon as practicable after the end of each financial year make to the Secretary of State a report on the performance of its functions during the year; and the Secretary of State must lay a copy of the report before each House of Parliament.
Offences carrying restricted eligibility of terrorist prisoners for release on licence
Terrorism offences punishable with imprisonment for life
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2000—
section 54 (weapons training);
section 56 (directing a terrorist organisation);
section 59 (inciting terrorism overseas: England and Wales), other than an offence which is an offence by virtue of subsection (2)(c) of that section;
section 60 (inciting terrorism overseas: Northern Ireland), other than an offence which is an offence by virtue of subsection (2)(c) of that section;
section 61 (inciting terrorism overseas: Scotland).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2006—
section 5 (preparation of terrorist acts);
section 6 (training for terrorism);
section 9 (making or possession of radioactive device or material);
section 10 (misuse of radioactive device or material for terrorist purposes etc);
section 11 (terrorist threats relating to radioactive devices etc).
An attempt to commit an offence specified in a preceding paragraph of this Part of this Schedule (“a listed offence”).
Conspiracy to commit a listed offence.
An offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 in relation to which a listed offence is the offence (or one of the offences) which the person intended or believed would be committed.
Incitement to commit a listed offence.
Aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of a listed offence.
An offence that—
was abolished before the coming into force of this Schedule, and
if committed on the day on which this Schedule came into force, would have constituted an offence specified in any of the preceding paragraphs of this Part of this Schedule.
Terrorism offences punishable with imprisonment for more than two years (but not life)
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2000—
section 11 (membership of a proscribed organisation);
section 12 (inviting or expressing support for a proscribed organisation);
section 15 (fund-raising);
section 16 (use of money or property for terrorist purposes);
section 17 (involvement in terrorist funding arrangements);
section 17A (insuring payments made in response to terrorist threats);
section 18 (laundering of terrorist property);
section 19 (failure to disclose professional belief or suspicion about terrorist offences);
section 21A (failure in regulated sectors to disclose knowledge or suspicion about terrorist offences);
section 38B (failure to disclose information about acts of terrorism);
section 39 (disclosure of information prejudicial to a terrorist investigation etc);
section 57 (possession of article for terrorist purposes);
section 58 (collection of information likely to be of use to a terrorist);
section 58A (publishing information about members of the armed forces etc);
section 58B (entering or remaining in a designated area);
section 59 (inciting terrorism overseas: England and Wales), in the case of an offence which is an offence by virtue of the reference in subsection (2)(c) of that section to an offence under section 23 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861;
section 60 (inciting terrorism overseas: Northern Ireland), in the case of an offence which is an offence by virtue of the reference in subsection (2)(c) of that section to an offence under section 23 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861.
An offence under section 113 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (use of noxious substances to harm or intimidate).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2006—
section 1 (encouragement of terrorism);
section 2 (dissemination of terrorist publications);
section 8 (attendance at a place used for terrorist training).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008—
section 54(breach of police notification requirements etc);
paragraph 15 of Schedule 5(breach of foreign travel restriction order).
An offence under section 23 of the Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011 (breach of notices imposing terrorism prevention and investigation measures).
An offence under section 10 of the Counter-Terrorism and Security Act 2015 (breach of temporary exclusion order).
An attempt to commit an offence specified in a preceding paragraph of this Part of this Schedule (“a listed offence”).
Conspiracy to commit a listed offence.
An offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 in relation to which a listed offence is the offence (or one of the offences) which the person intended or believed would be committed.
Incitement to commit a listed offence.
Aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of a listed offence.
An offence that—
was abolished before the coming into force of this Schedule, and
if committed on the day on which this Schedule came into force, would have constituted an offence specified in any of the preceding paragraphs of this Part of this Schedule.
Other offences punishable with imprisonment for life
Manslaughter.
Culpable homicide (under the law of Scotland).
Kidnapping.
False imprisonment.
Abduction (under the law of Scotland).
Assault by explosive device (under the law of Scotland).
Assault to severe injury (under the law of Scotland).
Assault and poisoning (under the law of Scotland).
Poisoning (under the law of Scotland).
Robbery (under the law of Scotland).
Assault with intent to rob (under the law of Scotland).
Wilful fire-raising (under the law of Scotland).
Malicious mischief (under the law of Scotland).
Riot (under the law of Northern Ireland).
Affray (under the law of Northern Ireland).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Offences against the Person Act 1861—
section 4 (soliciting murder);
section 18 (wounding with intent to cause grievous bodily harm);
section 21 (attempting to choke, suffocate or strangle in order to commit or assist in the committing of an indictable offence);
section 22 (using chloroform etc to commit or assist in the committing of any indictable offence);
section 28 (causing bodily injury by explosives);
section 29 (using explosives etc with intent to do grievous bodily harm);
section 32 (endangering the safety of railway passengers).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Explosive Substances Act 1883—
section 2 (causing explosion likely to endanger life or property);
section 3 (attempt to cause explosion, or making or keeping explosive with intent to endanger life or property);
section 4 (making or possession of explosive under suspicious circumstances);
section 5 (punishment of accessories to offences of causing or attempting to cause explosions or making or possessing explosives).
An offence under section 1 of the Infant Life (Preservation) Act 1929 (child destruction).
An offence under section 1 of the Infanticide Act 1938 (infanticide).
An offence under section 1 of the Infanticide Act (Northern Ireland) 1939 (c. 5 (N.I.)) (infanticide).
An offence under section 25 of the Criminal Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 1945 (c. 15 (N.I.)) (child destruction).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Firearms Act 1968—
section 16 (possession of firearm with intent to endanger life);
section 17(1) (use of firearm to resist arrest);
section 17(2) (possession of firearm at time of committing or being arrested for offence specified in Schedule 1 to that Act);
section 18 (carrying a firearm with criminal intent).
An offence under either of the following provisions of the Theft Act 1968—
section 8 (robbery or assault with intent to rob);
section 10 (aggravated burglary).
An offence under either of the following provisions of the Theft Act (Northern Ireland) 1969 (c. 16 (N.I.))—
section 8 (robbery);
section 10 (aggravated burglary).
An offence of arson under section 1 of the Criminal Damage Act 1971.
An offence under section 1(2) of that Act (destruction or damage of property with intent or recklessness as to endangerment of life) other than an offence of arson.
An offence under section 1 of the Biological Weapons Act 1974 (developing certain biological agents and toxins or biological weapons).
An offence of arson under Article 3 of the Criminal Damage (Northern Ireland) Order 1977 (S.I. 1977/426 (N.I. 4)).
An offence under Article 3(2) of that Order (destruction or damage of property with intent or recklessness as to endangerment of life) other than an offence of arson.
An offence under section 1 of the Taking of Hostages Act 1982 (hostage-taking).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Aviation Security Act 1982—
section 1 (hijacking);
section 2 (destroying, damaging or endangering safety of aircraft);
section 3 (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safety of aircraft);
section 6(2) (inducing or assisting the commission of offences relating to safety of aircraft).
An offence under either of the following provisions of the Nuclear Material (Offences) Act 1983—
section 1B (offences relating to damage to the environment);
section 2 (preparatory acts and threats).
An offence under section 134 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 (torture).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Aviation and Maritime Security Act 1990—
section 1 (endangering safety at aerodromes);
section 9 (hijacking of ships);
section 10 (seizing or exercising control of fixed platforms);
section 11 (destroying ships or fixed platforms or endangering their safety);
section 12 (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safe navigation);
section 13 (offences involving threats);
section 14(4) (inducing or assisting the commission of offences relating to hijacking of ships, or destroying ships or fixed platforms or endangering their safety).
An offence under Part 2 of the Channel Tunnel (Security) Order 1994 (S.I. 1994/570) (offences relating to Channel Tunnel trains and the tunnel system).
An offence under either of the following provisions of the Chemical Weapons Act 1996—
section 2 (use etc of chemical weapons);
section 11 (premises or equipment used for producing chemical weapons).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the International Criminal Court Act 2001, other than an offence involving murder—
section 51 (genocide, crimes against humanity and war crimes: England and Wales);
section 52 (conduct ancillary to genocide etc: England and Wales);
section 58 (genocide, crimes against humanity and war crimes: Northern Ireland);
section 59 (conduct ancillary to genocide etc: Northern Ireland).
An offence under either of the following provisions of the Anti-Terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001—
section 47 (use etc of nuclear weapons);
section 50 (assisting or inducing certain weapons-related acts overseas).
An offence under section 1 or 2 of the International Criminal Court (Scotland) Act 2001 (asp 13) (genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes and related offences), other than one involving murder.
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Firearms (Northern Ireland) Order 2004 (S.I. 2004/702 (N.I. 3))—
Article 58(1) (possession of firearm with intent to endanger life etc);
Article 59(1) (use of firearm to resist arrest);
Article 59(2) (possession of firearm while committing other offence);
Article 60 (carrying a firearm with criminal intent).
An offence under either of the following provisions of the Modern Slavery Act 2015—
section 1 (slavery, servitude and forced or compulsory labour);
section 2 (human trafficking).
An offence under either of the following provisions of the Human Trafficking and Exploitation (Scotland) Act 2015 (asp 12)—
section 1 (human trafficking);
section 4 (slavery, servitude and forced or compulsory labour).
An offence under either of the following provisions of the Human Trafficking and Exploitation (Criminal Justice and Support for Victims) Act (Northern Ireland) 2015 (c. 2 (N.I.))—
section 1 (slavery, servitude and forced or compulsory labour);
section 2 (human trafficking).
An offence under any of the following provisions of Schedule 4 to the Space Industry Act 2018—
paragraph 1 (hijacking of spacecraft);
paragraph 2 (destroying, damaging or endangering the safety of spacecraft);
paragraph 3 (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safety of spacecraft);
paragraph 4 (endangering safety at spaceports).
An attempt to commit an offence specified in a preceding paragraph of this Part of this Schedule (“a listed offence”).
Conspiracy to commit a listed offence.
An offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 in relation to which a listed offence is the offence (or one of the offences) which the person intended or believed would be committed.
Incitement to commit a listed offence.
Aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of a listed offence.
An attempt to commit murder.
Conspiracy to commit murder.
An offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 in relation to which murder is the offence (or one of the offences) which the person intended or believed would be committed.
Incitement to commit murder.
Aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring murder.
An offence that—
was abolished before the coming into force of this Schedule, and
if committed on the day on which this Schedule came into force, would have constituted an offence specified in any of the preceding paragraphs of this Part of this Schedule.
Offences where offender not eligible for release at the end of the section 255BA automatic release period
An offence under section 7 of the Official Secrets Act 1911(harbouring spies).
An offence under the Official Secrets Act 1989 other than an offence under section 8(1), (4) or (5).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2000—
section 13(uniform and publication of images);
section 21D(tipping off: regulated sector);
section 36 (2)(failure to comply with an order, etc of constable in connection with terrorist investigation);
section 51 (2)(failure to move a vehicle when required to do so);
section 116 (3)(failure to stop a vehicle when required to do so);
section 120B(offences in relation to counter-terrorism financial investigators);
in Schedule 5(terrorist investigations: information)—
paragraph 3 (7)(wilfully obstructing a search of a cordoned area);
paragraph 14(making a false or misleading statement in connection with a terrorist investigation);
paragraph 15 (4)(wilfully obstructing an urgent search);
paragraph 16 (3)(failure to comply with an urgent explanation notice: England and Wales and Northern Ireland);
paragraph 32 (3)(failure to comply with an urgent explanation notice: Scotland);
in Schedule 5A(terrorist financing investigations: disclosure orders)—
paragraph 11(failure to comply with disclosure order or making false or misleading statement in purported compliance: England and Wales and Northern Ireland);
paragraph 21(failure to comply with disclosure order or making false or misleading statement in purported compliance: Scotland);
paragraph 1 (3) of Schedule 6(failure to comply with requirement to provide financial information);
paragraph 18 of Schedule 7(port and border controls: failure to comply with duty, etc).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008—
paragraph 15 of Schedule 5(breach of foreign travel restriction order);
in Schedule 7(terrorist financing and money laundering)—
paragraph 30(failure to comply with requirement imposed by direction);
paragraph 30A(circumvention of requirement imposed by direction);
paragraph 31(offences in connection with licences).
An offence under paragraph 15 of Schedule 1 to the Counter-Terrorism and Security Act 2015(failure to hand over travel documents or hindering a search).
An offence under paragraph 23 of Schedule 3 to the Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019(failure to comply with a duty relating to border security or obstructing a search).
An offence under any of the following provisions of the National Security Act 2023—
section 5 (1)(unauthorised entry to a prohibited place);
section 6 (4)(failure to comply with instructions of constable around a prohibited place);
section 11 (4)(failure to comply with police cordon);
section 69 (5)(requirement to register foreign influence arrangements);
section 71 (2) or(3)(carrying out political influence activities pursuant to unregistered foreign influence arrangement);
section 72 (6)(failure to register political influence activities of foreign powers);
section 74 (8) committed in relation to a foreign influence arrangement registered under section 69 or a political influence activity registered under section 72 (failure to submit material change in relation to foreign influence arrangement or political influence activity registrations);
section 75 (8) committed in relation to an information notice given under section 75(2) (failure to comply with a requirement to provide information);
section 77 (3) or(4)(providing false information);
section 78 (2)(carrying out activities under arrangements tainted by false information);
in Schedule 2(powers of entry, search and seizure)—
paragraph 11 (1)(providing false or misleading response to an order requiring explanation of material);
paragraph 12 (5)(wilfully obstructing an urgent search);
paragraph 14 (3)(failure to comply with an urgent notice);
in Schedule 3(disclosure orders)—
paragraph 7 (1)(failure to comply with a disclosure order);
paragraph 7 (3)(making a false or misleading statement in response to a disclosure order);
paragraph 6 (1) of Schedule 4(failure to comply with a customer information order).
An offence in relation to which, under section 20 of the National Security Act 2023 (aggravating factor where foreign power or designated body condition met: Northern Ireland), the foreign power condition or the designated body condition has been determined to have been met in relation to the conduct that constituted the offence.
An offence to which section 21 of that Act applies (aggravating factor where foreign power or designated body condition met: Scotland).
An attempt to commit an offence specified in a preceding paragraph of this Schedule (“a listed offence”).
Conspiracy to commit a listed offence.
An offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 in relation to which a listed offence is the offence (or one of the offences) which the person intended or believed would be committed.
Incitement to commit a listed offence.
Aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of a listed offence.
A reference in any of the preceding paragraphs of this Schedule to an offence (“offence A”) includes—
a reference to an offence under section 70 of the Army Act 1955 or section 70 of the Air Force Act 1955 as respects which the corresponding civil offence (within the meaning of that Act) is offence A,
a reference to an offence under section 42 of the Naval Discipline Act 1957 as respects which the civil offence (within the meaning given by that section) is offence A, and
a reference to an offence under section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 as respects which the corresponding offence under the law of England and Wales (within the meaning given by that section) is offence A.
Section 48 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (attempts etc. outside England and Wales) applies for the purposes of paragraph (c) of sub-paragraph (1) as if the reference in subsection (3)(b) to any of the following provisions of that Act were a reference to that paragraph.
Supervision default orders
Requirements etc
Application of provisions of the Sentencing Code
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Powers of Secretary of State in relation to provisions of the Sentencing Code
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Breach, revocation or amendment
Proceedings for breach
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Issue of summons or warrant by justice of the peace
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Powers of magistrates' court to deal with breach
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Amendment or revocation of order by magistrates' court
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Amendment of local justice area specified in order
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Revocation of order on imposition of further sentence
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Offences where offender not suitable for automatic release
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Prisoners returning to the UK: Modifications of Chapter 6 of Part 12
Paragraph 2 applies where section 244ZC(2), 244A(2) or 246A(4) (when read with section 260(4A)) would require the Secretary of State to refer a person’s case to the Board on a day falling before the end of the period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the person is returned to custody.
The applicable provision is to be read as requiring the Secretary of State to refer the person’s case to the Board at any time up to the end of the period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the person is returned to custody.
For the purposes of paragraphs 1 and 2, a person returns to custody when the person, having returned to the United Kingdom, is detained (whether or not in prison) in pursuance of their sentence.
Paragraphs 5 and 6 apply where, before a person’s removal from the United Kingdom—
the Board had directed their release under section 244ZC, 244A or 246A, but
they had not been released on licence.
The direction of the Board is to be treated as having no effect.
The person is to be treated as if—
they had been recalled under section 254 on the day on which they returned to the United Kingdom, and
section 255C (prisoners excluded from automatic release) applied to them.
Paragraph 8 applies where—
before a person’s removal from prison their case had been referred to the Board under section 244ZB(3), 244ZC(2), 244A(2) or 246A(4), and
the reference lapsed under section 260(4B) because the person was removed from the United Kingdom before the Board had disposed of the reference.
Section 244ZC(2), 244A(2) or 246A(4) (as applicable) is to be read as requiring the Secretary of State to refer the person’s case to the Board before the end of the period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the person is returned to custody.
For the purposes of paragraph 8, a person returns to custody when the person, having returned to the United Kingdom, is detained (whether or not in prison) in pursuance of their sentence.
The person is to be treated as if—
they had been recalled under section 254 on the day on which they returned to the United Kingdom, and
section 255C (prisoners excluded from automatic release) applied to them.
Prisoners liable to removal from United Kingdom: modifications of Criminal Justice Act 1991
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Application of Chapter 6 of Part 12 to pre-4 April 2005 cases
In this Schedule—“the 1991 Act” means the Criminal Justice Act 1991;“the commencement date” means the date on which section 121 of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 comes into force.
Paragraphs 3 to 9 apply in relation to any person serving a sentence for an offence committed before 4 April 2005, whenever that sentence was imposed (see section 121(1) of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012).
Any relevant period is to be treated, for the purposes of section 240ZA, as if it were a period for which the offender was remanded in custody in connection with the offence.
“Relevant period” means any period which would (but for the repeal of section 67 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967) be a relevant period within the meaning of that section (reduction of sentences by period spent in custody etc).
Section 246(4) applies as if—
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in paragraph (i), the words from “in the case of” to “relates” were omitted.
Where the person has been released on licence under Part 2 of the 1991 Act or under section 60 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967 before the commencement date, the person is to be treated as if the release had been under this Chapter.
In particular, the following provisions apply.
A licence under section 34A of the 1991 Act is to be treated as if it were a licence under section 246.
Where the licence is, on the commencement date, subject to a suspension under section 38(2) of the 1991 Act, the suspension continues to have effect for the period specified by the court despite the repeal of that section.
A licence under section 40A of the 1991 Act is to be treated as if it were a licence under this Chapter, except that in respect of any failure (before or after the commencement date) to comply with the conditions of the licence, the person is liable to be dealt with in accordance with section 40A(4) to (6) (despite the repeal of that section) and is not liable to be dealt with in any other way.
Sub-paragraph (1) does not affect the duration of the licence.
Where a person has been recalled under Part 2 of the 1991 Act before the commencement date, the person is to be treated as if the recall had been under section 254.
In particular, the following provisions apply.
If the Secretary of State has not referred the person's case to the Board under section 39(4) or 44A of the 1991 Act, the Secretary of State must refer the case under section 255C(4).
If the Secretary of State has referred the person's case to the Board under section 39(4) or 44A of the 1991 Act, that reference is to be treated as if it had been made under section 255C(4).
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A person removed from prison under section 46A of the 1991 Act before the commencement date is to be treated as having been removed from prison under section 260.
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Section 268(1A) (definition of “the requisite custodial period”) has effect as if it provided that, in relation to a person serving an extended sentence under section 85 of the Sentencing Act, the requisite custodial period means one-half of the custodial term determined under that section (subject to sections 263 and 264).
Section 264 applies as if the definition of “custodial period” in subsection (6) included, in relation to an extended sentence imposed under section 85 of the Sentencing Act, one-half of the custodial term determined under that section.
Modifications of Chapter 6 of Part 12 in certain transitional cases
Introductory
Interpretation
The following provisions apply for the purposes of this Schedule.
“The commencement date” means the date on which section 121 of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 comes into force.
“The 1967 Act” means the Criminal Justice Act 1967.
“The 1991 Act” means the Criminal Justice Act 1991.
In relation to a section 85 extended sentence, “the custodial term” and “the extension period” have the meaning given by that section.
A “1967 Act sentence” is a sentence imposed before 1 October 1992.
A “1991 Act sentence” is a sentence which is—
imposed on or after 1 October 1992 but before 4 April 2005, or
imposed on or after 4 April 2005 but before the commencement date and is either—
imposed in respect of an offence committed before 4 April 2005, or
for a term of less than 12 months.
A “2003 Act sentence” is a sentence which is—
imposed on or after the commencement date, or
imposed on or after 4 April 2005 but before the commencement date and is both—
imposed in respect of an offence committed on or after 4 April 2005, and
for a term of 12 months or more.
Where an offence is found to have been committed over a period of two or more days, or at some time during a period of two or more days, it is to be taken for the purposes of this Schedule to have been committed on the last of those days.
Explanation of dates
The following dates (which are mentioned in this Schedule) are dates on which changes to the law relating to the release and recall of prisoners came into force—1 October 1992 is the date on which Part 2 of the 1991 Act came into force; 30 September 1998 is the date on which certain provisions of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 came into force; 4 April 2005 is the date on which this Chapter came into force; 9 June 2008 is the date on which section 26 of the Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008 came into force; 14 July 2008 is the date on which certain other provisions of that Act came into force; 2 August 2010 is the date on which section 145 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 came into force.
Prisoners serving 1991 Act sentences etc
This Part applies to certain persons serving a 1991 Act sentence.
This Part also applies to a person serving a 2003 Act sentence which is—
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But this Part does not apply to a person who—
has been released on licence under Part 2 of the 1991 Act,
has been recalled to prison, and
(whether or not having returned to custody in consequence of that recall) is unlawfully at large on the commencement date.
Duty to release on licence at two-thirds of sentence
This paragraph applies to a person in relation to whom—
all the conditions in sub-paragraph (2) are met, and
the condition in any one or more of sub-paragraphs (3) to (5) is met.
The conditions in this sub-paragraph are that—
the person has been convicted of an offence committed before 4 April 2005,
the person is serving a sentence of imprisonment imposed in respect of that offence on or after 1 October 1992 but before the commencement date,
the sentence or (in the case of a section 85 extended sentence) the custodial term is for a term of 4 years or more, and
the person has not previously been released from prison on licence in respect of that sentence.
The condition in this sub-paragraph is that the offence (or one of the offences) in respect of which the sentence was imposed is—
an offence specified in Schedule 15 (specified violent offences and specified sexual offences) as it had effect on 4 April 2005,
an offence under section 12 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956,
an offence of aiding, abetting counselling, procuring or inciting the commission of an offence listed in any of paragraphs (b) to (d), or
an offence of conspiring or attempting to commit an offence listed in any of paragraphs (b) to (d).
The condition in this sub-paragraph is that the person has served one-half of the sentence or (in the case of a section 85 extended sentence) of the custodial term before 9 June 2008.
The condition in this sub-paragraph is that—
the person is serving the sentence by virtue of having been transferred to the United Kingdom in pursuance of a warrant under section 1 of the Repatriation of Prisoners Act 1984,
the warrant was issued before 9 June 2008, and
the offence (or one of the offences) for which the person is serving the sentence corresponds... to any offence specified in Schedule 15 as it had effect on 4 April 2005.
As soon as a person to whom paragraph 4 applies(but to whom section 247A does not apply) has served two-thirds of the sentence, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release the person on licence under this paragraph.
If the person is serving a section 85 extended sentence, the reference in sub-paragraph (1) to two-thirds of the sentence is a reference to two-thirds of the custodial term.
Sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) apply in place of section 244 (release on licence of prisoners serving 12 months or more).
Where section 247A applies to a person—it does so with the modifications set out in sub-paragraphs (5) and (6).
to whom paragraph 4 also applies, and
who is serving a section 85 extended sentence,
Section 247A(7) applies to the person (despite subsection (6) of that section).
References in section 247A to—
the “appropriate custodial term” are to be read as references to the custodial term;
the “requisite custodial period” are to be read as references to two-thirds of the custodial term.
Duty to release on direction of Parole Board
After a person to whom paragraph 4 applies(but to whom section 247A does not apply) has served one-half of the sentence, the Secretary of State must, if directed to do so by the Board, release the person on licence under this paragraph.
The Board must not give a direction under sub-paragraph (1) unless the Board is satisfied that it is no longer necessary for the protection of the public that the person should be confined.
If the person is serving a section 85 extended sentence, the reference in sub-paragraph (1) to one-half of the sentence is a reference to one-half of the custodial term.
Sub-paragraphs (1) to (3) apply in place of section 244 (release on licence of prisoners serving 12 months or more).
Paragraphs 38 and 39 contain provision that relates to the Board's function of giving directions under sub-paragraph (2) for the release of a person.
Release on licence at one-half of sentence: section 85 extended sentence prisoners
This paragraph applies to a person if—
the person has been convicted of an offence committed on or after 30 September 1998 but before 4 April 2005,
the person is serving a section 85 extended sentence in respect of that offence,
the person has not previously been released from prison on licence in respect of that sentence, and
paragraph 4 does not apply to the person.
As soon as a person to whom paragraph 7 applies has served one-half of the custodial term, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release the person on licence under this paragraph.
Duty to release unconditionally at three-quarters of sentence
This paragraph applies to a person if—
the person has been convicted of an offence committed before 30 September 1998,
the person is serving a sentence of imprisonment imposed in respect of that offence on or after 1 October 1992,
the sentence is for a term of 12 months or more,
the person has been released on licence under Part 2 of the 1991 Act, and
the person has been recalled before 14 July 2008 (and has not been recalled after that date).
But this paragraph does not apply if the court by which the person was sentenced ordered that section 86 of the Sentencing Act (extension of periods in custody and on licence in the case of certain sexual offences) should apply.
As soon as a person to whom paragraph 9 applies would (but for the earlier release) have served three-quarters of the sentence, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release the person unconditionally.
Duty to release on licence at three-quarters of sentence
This paragraph applies to a person who—
has been convicted of an offence committed on or after 30 September 1998 but before 4 April 2005,
is serving a sentence of imprisonment for a term of 12 months or more imposed in respect of that offence,
has been released on licence under Part 2 of the 1991 Act, and
has been recalled before 14 July 2008 (and has not been recalled after that date).
But this paragraph does not apply if the person has been released and recalled more than once.
Nor does this paragraph apply if the sentence is a section 85 extended sentence (paragraph 13 applying to such a case instead).
As soon as a person to whom paragraph 11 applies would (but for the earlier release) have served three-quarters of the sentence, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release the person on licence.
Release on licence: re-release of section 85 extended sentence prisoners
This paragraph applies to a person who—
has been convicted of an offence committed on or after 30 September 1998 but before 4 April 2005,
is serving a section 85 extended sentence imposed in respect of that offence,
has been released on licence under Part 2 of the 1991 Act, and
has been recalled before 14 July 2008 (and has not been recalled after that date).
But this paragraph does not apply if the person has been released and recalled more than once.
If a person to whom paragraph 13 applies is serving a sentence with a custodial term of less than 12 months, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release the person on licence as soon as the person would (but for the earlier release) have served the period found by adding—
one-half of the custodial term, and
the extension period.
If a person to whom paragraph 13 applies is serving a sentence with a custodial term of 12 months or more, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release the person on licence as soon as the person would (but for the earlier release) have served the period found by adding—
three-quarters of the custodial term, and
the extension period.
Release of section 227 or 228 extended sentence prisoners: Parole Board direction
If section 247 (release of prisoner on licence) applies to P, it applies with the following modifications.
The Secretary of State must not release P under subsection (2) of that section unless the Board has directed P's release under that subsection.
The Board must not give a direction under sub-paragraph (3) unless the Board is satisfied that it is no longer necessary for the protection of the public that the person should be confined.
As soon as P has served the appropriate custodial term, the Secretary of State must release P on licence, unless P has previously been recalled under section 254.
Paragraphs 38 and 39 contain provision that relates to the Board's function of giving directions under sub-paragraph (4) for the release of a person.
Licence to remain in force to three-quarters of sentence
This paragraph applies to a person to whom paragraph 4 applies.
This paragraph also applies to a person if—
the person has been convicted of an offence committed before 4 April 2005,
the person is serving a sentence of imprisonment imposed in respect of that offence on or after 1 October 1992 but before the commencement date,
that sentence is for a term of 12 months or more but less than 4 years, and
the person has not previously been released from prison on licence in respect of that sentence.
This paragraph also applies to a person if—
the person has been convicted of an offence committed before 4 April 2005,
the person is serving a sentence of imprisonment imposed in respect of that offence on or after 1 October 1992,
that sentence is for a term of 12 months or more,
the person has been released on licence under Part 2 of the 1991 Act, and
the person has been recalled before 14 July 2008 (and has not been recalled after that date).
But this paragraph does not apply if the person has been released and recalled more than once.
Nor does this paragraph apply if—
the person is serving a section 85 extended sentence, or
the court by which the person was sentenced ordered that section 86 of the Sentencing Act (extension of periods in custody and on licence in the case of certain sexual offences) should apply.
If a person has been—the release and recall are to be disregarded for the purposes of this paragraph.
released under section 34A of the 1991 Act or section 246 (home detention curfew), and
recalled under section 38A(1)(b) of the 1991 Act or section 255(1)(b) (no longer possible to monitor curfew),
But if section 247A would (disregarding this sub-paragraph) require the release on licence of a person to whom paragraph 16 applies at any time after the end of the period referred to in sub-paragraph (1)—
that requirement does not apply, and
it is instead the duty of the Secretary of State to release the person unconditionally.
Sub-paragraph (1) is subject to any revocation under section 254.
Sub-paragraphs(1) to (2) apply in place of section 249 (duration of licence).
Period for which licence to remain in force: section 85 extended sentence prisoners
This paragraph applies to a person who—
has been convicted of an offence committed on or after 30 September 1998 but before 4 April 2005,
is serving a section 85 extended sentence imposed in respect of that offence, and
has not previously been released from prison on licence in respect of that sentence.
Where a person to whom paragraph 18 applies is released on licence and the custodial term is less than 12 months, the licence shall remain in force until the end of the period found by adding—
one-half of the custodial term, and
the extension period.
Where a person to whom paragraph 18 applies is released on licence and the custodial term is 12 months or more, the licence shall remain in force until the end of the relevant period.
Sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) are subject to any revocation under section 254.
Sub-paragraphs (1) to (3) apply in place of section 249 (duration of licence).
In sub-paragraph (2), “the relevant period”—
in relation to a person released on licence under section 247A at any time after the end of the period of three-quarters of the custodial term, means the period found by adding—
the proportion of the custodial term served before release, and
the extension period;
in relation to any other case, means the period found by adding—
three-quarters of the custodial term, and
the extension period.
Concurrent or consecutive terms
Paragraphs 21 and 22 apply where a person (“P”) is serving two or more sentences of imprisonment imposed on or after 1 October 1992 and—
the sentences were passed on the same occasion, or
where they were passed on different occasions, the person has not been released under Part 2 of the 1991 Act or under this Chapter at any time during the period beginning with the first and ending with the last of those occasions.
This paragraph applies if each of the sentences is a 1991 Act sentence.
For the purposes of any reference in this Chapter, however expressed, to the term of imprisonment to which P has been sentenced or which, or part of which, P has served, the terms are to be treated as a single term.
If one or more of the sentences is a section 85 extended sentence—
for the purpose of determining the single term mentioned in sub-paragraph (3), the extension period or periods is or are to be disregarded, and
the period for which P is to be on licence in respect of the single term is to be increased in accordance with sub-paragraph (5).
That period is to be increased—
if only one of the sentences is a section 85 extended sentence, by the extension period;
if there is more than one such sentence and they are wholly or partly concurrent, by the longest of the extension periods;
if there is more than one such sentence and they are consecutive, by the aggregate of the extension periods.
This paragraph applies where two or more sentences are to be served consecutively on each other and—
one or more of those sentences is a 1991 Act sentence, and
one or more of them is a 2003 Act sentence.
Section 264 does not affect the length of the period which P must serve in prison in respect of the 1991 Act sentence or sentences.
Nothing in this Chapter requires the Secretary of State to release P until P has served a period equal in length to the aggregate of the length of the periods which P must serve in relation to each of the sentences mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
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If P is also serving one or more 1967 Act sentences, paragraphs 32 and 33 apply instead of this paragraph.
Prisoners serving 1967 Act sentences
This Part applies to certain persons serving a 1967 Act sentence.
But this Part does not apply to a person who—
has been released on licence,
has been recalled to prison, and
(whether or not having returned to custody in consequence of that recall) is unlawfully at large on the commencement date.
In this Part, references to release under Part 2 of the 1991 Act include release under section 60 of the 1967 Act.
Sentence of more than 12 months imposed before 1 October 1992
This paragraph applies to a person if—
the person is serving a sentence of imprisonment imposed before 1 October 1992,
the sentence is for a term of more than 12 months, and
the person has not previously been released from prison on licence in respect of that sentence.
This paragraph also applies to a person if—
the person is serving a sentence of imprisonment imposed before 1 October 1992,
the sentence is for a term of more than 12 months,
the person has been released on licence under Part 2 of the 1991 Act, and
the person has been recalled before 14 July 2008 (and has not been recalled after that date).
But this paragraph does not apply if, on the passing of the sentence, an extended sentence certificate was issued (see paragraph 27).
If a person has been—the release and recall are to be disregarded for the purposes of this paragraph.
released under section 34A of the 1991 Act or section 246 (home detention curfew), and
recalled under section 38A(1)(b) of the 1991 Act or section 255(1)(b) (no longer possible to monitor curfew),
It is the duty of the Secretary of State to release a person to whom paragraph 24 applies unconditionally under this paragraph—
in the case of a person falling within paragraph 24(1), as soon as the person has served two-thirds of the sentence;
in the case of a person falling within paragraph 24(2), as soon as the person would (but for the earlier release) have served two-thirds of the sentence.
After a person falling within paragraph 24(1) has served one-third of the sentence or six months, whichever is longer, the Secretary of State must, if directed to do so by the Board, release the person on licence under this paragraph.
The Board must not give a direction under sub-paragraph (2) unless the Board is satisfied that it is no longer necessary for the protection of the public that the person should be confined.
Sub-paragraphs (1) to (3) apply in place of section 244 (release on licence of prisoners serving 12 months or more).
Paragraphs 38 and 39 contain provision that relates to the Board's function of giving directions under sub-paragraph (3) for the release of a person.
Where a person to whom paragraph 24 applies is released on licence under paragraph 25(2), the licence shall remain in force until the date on which the person would (but for the release) have served two-thirds of the sentence.
Sub-paragraph (1) is subject to any revocation under section 254.
Sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) apply in place of section 249 (duration of licence).
Extended sentence of more than 12 months imposed before 1 October 1992
This paragraph applies to a person if—
the person is serving a sentence of imprisonment imposed before 1 October 1992,
the sentence is for a term of more than 12 months,
on the passing of the sentence an extended sentence certificate was issued, and
the person has not previously been released from prison on licence in respect of that sentence.
This paragraph also applies to a person if—
the person is serving a sentence of imprisonment imposed before 1 October 1992,
the sentence is for a term of more than 12 months,
on the passing of the sentence an extended sentence certificate was issued,
the person has been released on licence under Part 2 of the 1991 Act, and
the person has been recalled before 14 July 2008 (and has not been recalled after that date).
In this paragraph “extended sentence certificate” means a certificate was issued under section 28 of the Powers of Criminal Courts Act 1973 (punishment of persistent offenders) stating that an extended term of imprisonment was imposed on the person under that section.
It is the duty of the Secretary of State to release a person to whom paragraph 27 applies on licence under this paragraph—
in the case of a person falling within paragraph 27(1), as soon as the person has served two-thirds of the sentence;
in the case of a person falling within paragraph 27(2), as soon as the person would (but for the earlier release) have served two-thirds of the sentence.
After a person falling within paragraph 27(1) has served one-third of the sentence or six months, whichever is longer, the Secretary of State must, if directed to do so by the Board, release the person on licence under this paragraph.
The Board must not give a direction under sub-paragraph (2) unless the Board is satisfied that it is no longer necessary for the protection of the public that the person should be confined.
Sub-paragraphs (1) to (3) apply in place of section 244 (release on licence of prisoners serving twelve months or more).
Additional days
Prison rules made by virtue of section 257 may include provision for applying any provisions of this Chapter, in relation to any person falling within sub-paragraph (2), as if the person had been awarded such number of additional days as may be determined by or under the rules.
A person falls within this sub-paragraph if—and (in either case) the person has forfeited any remission of the sentence.
the person was released on licence under section 60 of the 1967 Act before 1 October 1992 and the licence was in force on that date, or
the person was, on that date, serving a custodial sentence,
Concurrent or consecutive terms
Paragraphs 31 to 33 apply where a person (“P”) is serving two or more sentences of imprisonment and—
the sentences were passed on the same occasion, or
where they were passed on different occasions, the person has not been released under Part 2 of the 1991 Act or under this Chapter at any time during the period beginning with the first and ending with the last of those occasions.
This paragraph applies where each of the sentences is a 1967 Act sentence.
For the purposes of any reference in this Chapter, however expressed, to the term of imprisonment to which P has been sentenced or which, or part of which, P has served, the terms are to be treated as a single term.
This paragraph applies where—
one or more of the sentences is a 1967 Act sentence, and
one or more of them is a 1991 Act sentence.
For the purposes of any reference in this Chapter, however expressed, to the term of imprisonment to which P has been sentenced or which, or part of which, P has served—
the terms mentioned in sub-paragraph (1) are to be treated as a single term, and
that single term is to be treated as if it were a 1967 Act sentence.
If one or more of the sentences is a section 85 extended sentence—
for the purpose of determining the single term mentioned in sub-paragraph (3), the extension period or periods is or are to be disregarded, and
the period for which P is to be on licence in respect of the single term is to be increased in accordance with sub-paragraph (5).
That period is to be increased—
if only one of the sentences is a section 85 extended sentence, by the extension period;
if there is more than one such sentence and they are wholly or partly concurrent, by the longest of the extension periods;
if there is more than one such sentence and they are consecutive, by the aggregate of the extension periods.
If P is also serving a 2003 Act sentence, sub-paragraph (3) is to be applied before the period mentioned in section 263(2)(c) (concurrent terms) or paragraph 33(3) (consecutive terms) is calculated.
This paragraph applies where two or more sentences are to be served consecutively on each other and—
one or more of those sentences is a 1967 Act sentence, and
one or more of them is a 2003 Act sentence.
Section 264 does not affect the length of the period which P must serve in prison in respect of the 1967 Act sentence or sentences.
Nothing in this Chapter requires the Secretary of State to release P until P has served a period equal in length to the aggregate of the length of the periods which P must serve in relation to each of the sentences mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
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Provisions applying generally
Licence conditions
This paragraph applies to any licence (a “Parole Board licence”) which falls within sub-paragraph (2) or (3) and which was granted to a person serving—
a 1967 Act sentence,
a 1991 Act sentence, or
A licence falls within this sub-paragraph if—
it is or was granted to a person (“P”) on P's release (at any time) on the recommendation or direction of the Board, and
P has not been released otherwise than on such a recommendation or direction.
A licence falls within this sub-paragraph if—
it is or was granted to a person (“P”) on P's release (at any time), and
condition A or condition B is met.
Condition A is that, before 2 August 2010, the Board exercised the function under section 37(5) of the 1991 Act of making recommendations as to any condition to be included or inserted as a condition in a licence granted to P (including by making a recommendation that no condition should be included in such a licence).
Condition B is that, before 2 August 2010—
the Board exercised the function under section 37(5) of that Act of—
making recommendations as to the inclusion or insertion of a condition in a licence granted to P (including by making a recommendation that no condition should be included in such a licence), or
making recommendations as to the variation or cancellation of any such condition (including a recommendation that the condition should not be varied or cancelled).
The Secretary of State must not—except in accordance with directions of the Board.
include on release, or subsequently insert, a condition referred to in section 250(4)(b)(ii) in a Parole Board licence, or
vary or cancel any such condition,
Fine defaulters and contemnors
This paragraph applies to any person if—
the person has been committed to prison or to be detained under section 108 of the Sentencing Act—
in default of payment of a sum adjudged to be paid by a conviction, or
for contempt of court or any kindred offence,
the person was so committed or detained before 4 April 2005, and
the term for which the person was committed or detained is 12 months or more.
As soon as a person to whom this paragraph applies has served two-thirds of the term, it is the duty of the Secretary of State to release the person unconditionally.
Sub-paragraph (2) applies in place of section 258(2) (early release of fine defaulters and contemnors).
Early removal of prisoners liable to removal from UK
This paragraph applies to any person who—
has served one-half of a sentence of imprisonment, and
has not been released on licence under this Chapter.
The reference in sub-paragraph (1)(a) to one-half of a sentence is—
in the case of a section 85 extended sentence, a reference to one-half of the custodial term;
If a person to whom paragraph 36 applies—the Secretary of State may remove the person from prison under that section at any time after the end of that period.
is liable to removal from the United Kingdom, and
has not been removed from prison under section 260 during the period mentioned in subsection (1) of that section,
Sub-paragraph (1) applies whether or not the Board has directed the person's release under paragraph 6, 15, 25 or 28.
Manslaughter: prisoner's non disclosure of information
The Board must comply with this paragraph when making a relevant public protection decision about a prisoner if—
the prisoner's sentence was passed for manslaughter;
the Board does not know where and how the victim's remains were disposed of; and
the Board believes that the prisoner has information about where, or how, the victim's remains were disposed of (whether the information relates to the actions of the prisoner or any other individual) which the prisoner has not disclosed to the Board (“the prisoner's non-disclosure”).
When making the relevant public protection decision about the prisoner, the Board must take into account—
the prisoner's non-disclosure; and
the reasons, in the Board's view, for the prisoner's non-disclosure.
This paragraph does not limit the matters which the Board must or may take into account when making a relevant public protection decision.
In this paragraph, in relation to a prisoner—“public protection decision” has the meaning given by section 237A(2);“relevant public protection decision” means the public protection decision made—under paragraph 6(2) for the purposes of paragraph 6(1), under paragraph 15(4) for the purposes of paragraph 15(3), under paragraph 25(3) for the purposes of paragraph 25(2), or under paragraph 28(3) for the purposes of paragraph 28(2);“victim” means the victim of the offence for which the prisoner's sentence was passed; and a reference to the victim's remains being disposed of includes the remains being left at the location where the victim died.
Indecent images: prisoner's non-disclosure of information
The Board must comply with this paragraph when making a relevant public protection decision about a prisoner if—
the prisoner's sentence was passed for—
an offence of taking an indecent photograph of a child, or
a relevant offence of making an indecent pseudo-photograph of a child;
the Board does not know the identity of the child who is the subject of the relevant indecent image; and
the Board believes that the prisoner has information about the identity of the child who is the subject of the relevant indecent image which the prisoner has not disclosed to the Board (“the prisoner's non-disclosure”).
When making the relevant public protection decision about the prisoner, the Board must take into account—
the prisoner's non-disclosure; and
the reasons, in the Board's view, for the prisoner's non-disclosure.
This paragraph does not limit the matters which the Board must or may take into account when making a relevant public protection decision.
For the purposes of this paragraph an offence is—
an “offence of taking an indecent photograph of a child” if it is an offence under section 1(1)(a) of the Protection of Children Act 1978 of taking an indecent photograph of a child;
a “relevant offence of making an indecent pseudo-photograph of a child” if—and, in the application of this section to an offence of making an indecent pseudo-photograph of a child, the references in sub-paragraph (1)(b) and (c) to the child who is the subject of the relevant indecent image are references to the actual child.
it is an offence under section 1(1)(a) of the Protection of Children Act 1978 of making an indecent pseudo-photograph of a child, and
the Board believes that an image of a real child was or may have been used in the making of the pseudo-photograph;
In this paragraph—“public protection decision”, in relation to a prisoner, has the meaning given by section 237A(2);“relevant indecent image” means—the photograph to which an offence of taking an indecent photograph of a child relates, or the pseudo-photograph to which a relevant offence of making an indecent pseudo-photograph of a child relates.“relevant public protection decision”, in relation to a prisoner, means the public protection decision made—under paragraph 6(2) for the purposes of paragraph 6(1), under paragraph 15(4) for the purposes of paragraph 15(3), under paragraph 25(3) for the purposes of paragraph 25(2), or under paragraph 28(3) for the purposes of paragraph 28(2).
Determination of minimum term in relation to mandatory life sentence
Interpretation
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Starting points
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Aggravating and mitigating factors
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Mandatory life sentences: transitional cases
Interpretation
In this Schedule—“the commencement date” means the day on which section 269 comes into force;“the early release provisions” means the provisions of section 28(5) to (8) of the Crime (Sentences) Act 1997 (c. 43);“existing prisoner” means a person serving one or more mandatory life sentences passed before the commencement date (whether or not he is also serving any other sentence);“life sentence” means a sentence of imprisonment for life or custody for life passed in England and Wales or by a court-martial outside England and Wales;“mandatory life sentence” means a life sentence passed in circumstances where the sentence was fixed by law.
Existing prisoners notified by Secretary of State
Paragraph 3 applies in relation to any existing prisoner who, in respect of any mandatory life sentence, has before the commencement date been notified in writing by the Secretary of State (otherwise than in a notice that is expressed to be provisional) either—
of a minimum period which in the view of the Secretary of State should be served before the prisoner’s release on licence, or
that the Secretary of State does not intend that the prisoner should ever be released on licence.
On the application of the existing prisoner, the High Court must, in relation to the mandatory life sentence, either—
order that the early release provisions are to apply to him as soon as he has served the part of the sentence which is specified in the order, which in a case falling within paragraph 2(a) must not be greater than the notified minimum term, or
in a case falling within paragraph 2(b), order that the early release provisions are not to apply to the offender.
In a case falling within paragraph 2(a), no application may be made under this paragraph after the end of the notified minimum term.
Where no application under this paragraph is made in a case falling within paragraph 2(a), the early release provisions apply to the prisoner in respect of the sentence as soon as he has served the notified minimum term (or, if he has served that term before the commencement date but has not been released, from the commencement date).
In this paragraph “the notified minimum term” means the minimum period notified as mentioned in paragraph 2(a), or where the prisoner has been so notified on more than one occasion, the period most recently so notified.
In dealing with an application under paragraph 3, the High Court must have regard to—
the seriousness of the offence, or of the combination of the offence and one or more offences associated with it,
where the court is satisfied that, if the prisoner had been sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the length of his sentence would have been treated by section 67 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967 (c. 80) as being reduced by a particular period, the effect which that section would have had if he had been sentenced to a term of imprisonment, and
the length of the notified minimum term or, where a notification falling within paragraph 2(b) has been given to the prisoner, to the fact that such a notification has been given.
In considering under sub-paragraph (1) the seriousness of the offence, or of the combination of the offence and one or more offences associated with it, the High Court must have regard to—
the general principles set out in Schedule 21, and
any recommendation made to the Secretary of State by the trial judge or the Lord Chief Justice as to the minimum term to be served by the offender before release on licence.
In this paragraph “the notified minimum term” has the same meaning as in paragraph 3.
Existing prisoners not notified by Secretary of State
Paragraph 6 applies in relation to any existing prisoner who, in respect of any mandatory life sentence, has not before the commencement date been notified as mentioned in paragraph 2(a) or (b) by the Secretary of State.
The Secretary of State must refer the prisoner’s case to the High Court for the making by the High Court of an order under subsection (2) or (4) of section 269 in relation to the mandatory life sentence.
In considering under subsection (3) or (4) of section 269 the seriousness of an offence (or the combination of an offence and one or more offences associated with it) in a case referred to the High Court under paragraph 6, the High Court must have regard not only to the matters mentioned in subsection (5) of that section but also to any recommendation made to the Secretary of State by the trial judge or the Lord Chief Justice as to the minimum term to be served by the offender before release on licence.
In dealing with a reference under paragraph 6, the High Court—
may not make an order under subsection (2) of section 269 specifying a part of the sentence which in the opinion of the court is greater than that which, under the practice followed by the Secretary of State before December 2002, the Secretary of State would have been likely to notify as mentioned in paragraph 2(a), and
may not make an order under subsection (4) of section 269 unless the court is of the opinion that, under the practice followed by the Secretary of State before December 2002, the Secretary of State would have been likely to give the prisoner a notification falling within paragraph 2(b).
Sentences passed on or after commencement date in respect of offences committed before that date
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Proceedings in High Court
An application under paragraph 3 or a reference under paragraph 6 is to be determined by a single judge of the High Court without an oral hearing.
In relation to such an application or reference, any reference to “the court” in section 269(2) to (5) and Schedule 21 is to be read as a reference to the High Court.
Giving of reasons
Where the High Court makes an order under paragraph 3(1)(a) or (b), it must state in open court, in ordinary language, its reasons for deciding on the order made.
Where the order is an order under paragraph 3(1)(a) specifying a part of the sentence shorter than the notified minimum term the High Court must, in particular, state its reasons for departing from the notified minimum term.
Right of appeal
A person who has made an application under paragraph 3 or in respect of whom a reference has been made under paragraph 6 may with the leave of the Court of Appeal appeal to the Court of Appeal against the decision of the High Court on the application or reference.
Section 1(1) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960 (c. 65) (appeal to Supreme Court from decision of High Court in a criminal cause or matter) and section 18(1)(a) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54) (exclusion of appeal from High Court to Court of Appeal in a criminal cause or matter) do not apply in relation to a decision to which sub-paragraph (1) applies.
The jurisdiction conferred on the Court of Appeal by this paragraph is to be exercised by the criminal division of that court.
Section 33(3) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19) (limitation on appeal from criminal division of Court of Appeal) does not prevent an appeal to the Supreme Court under this paragraph.
In relation to appeals to the Court of Appeal or the Supreme Court under this paragraph, the Secretary of State may make an order containing provision corresponding to any provision in the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (subject to any specified modifications).
Review of minimum term on reference by Attorney General
Section 36 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 (c. 33) applies in relation to an order made by the High Court under paragraph 3(1)(a) as it applies in relation to an order made by the Crown Court under section 269(2).
Modification of early release provisions
In relation to an existing prisoner, section 28 of the Crime (Sentences) Act 1997 (c. 43) has effect subject to the following modifications.
Any reference to a life prisoner in respect of whom a minimum term order has been made includes a reference to—
an existing prisoner in respect of whom an order under paragraph 3(1)(a) has been made, and
an existing prisoner serving a sentence in respect of which paragraph 3(3) applies.
Any reference to the relevant part of the sentence is to be read—
in relation to a sentence in respect of which an order under paragraph 3(1)(a) has been made, as a reference to the part specified in the order, and
in relation to a sentence in respect of which paragraph 3(3) applies, as a reference to the notified minimum term as defined by paragraph 3(4).
In subsection (1B) (life prisoner serving two or more sentences), paragraph (a) is to be read as if it referred to each of the sentences being one—
in respect of which a minimum term order or an order under paragraph 3(1)(a) has been made, or
in respect of which paragraph 3(3) applies.
In section 34(1) of the Crime (Sentences) Act 1997 (c. 43) (interpretation of Chapter 2 of that Act), in the definition of “life prisoner”, the reference to a transferred prisoner as defined by section 273 of this Act includes a reference to an existing prisoner who immediately before the commencement date is a transferred life prisoner for the purposes of section 33 of that Act.
Transferred life prisoners
In relation to an existing prisoner who immediately before the commencement date is a transferred life prisoner for the purposes of section 33 of the Crime (Sentences) Act 1997, this Schedule is to be read as if—
any certificate under subsection (2) of that section were a notification falling within paragraph 2(a) of this Schedule, and
references to any recommendation of the trial judge or the Lord Chief Justice were omitted.
Deferment of sentence
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Section 70 of the Sentencing Act (requirements which may be included in action plan orders and directions) is amended as follows.
After subsection (4) there is inserted—
Schedule 6 to the Sentencing Act (requirements which may be included in supervision orders) is amended as follows.
In paragraph 1, after “6” there is inserted “ ,6A ”.
After paragraph 6 there is inserted—
In Schedule 7 to the Sentencing Act (breach, revocation and amendment of supervision orders), in paragraph 2(1), before “or 7” there is inserted “ ,6A ”.
Summary offences no longer punishable with imprisonment
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Railway Regulation Act 1842 (c. 55)
An offence under section 17 of the Railway Regulation Act 1842 (punishment of railway employees guilty of misconduct).
London Hackney Carriages Act 1843 (c. 86)
An offence under section 28 of the London Hackney Carriages Act 1843 (punishment for furious driving etc.).
Town Police Clauses Act 1847 (c. 89)
An offence under section 26 of the Town Police Clauses Act 1847 (unlawful release of impounded stray cattle).
An offence under section 28 of that Act (offences relating to obstructions and nuisances).
An offence under section 29 of that Act (drunken persons, etc. guilty of violent or indecent behaviour).
An offence under section 36 of that Act (keeping places for bear-baiting, cock-fighting etc.).
Ecclesiastical Courts Jurisdiction Act 1860 (c. 32)
An offence under section 2 of the Ecclesiastical Courts Jurisdiction Act 1860 (making a disturbance in churches, chapels, churchyards, etc.).
Town Gardens Protection Act 1863 (c. 13)
An offence under section 5 of the Town Gardens Protection Act 1863 (injuring gardens).
Public Stores Act 1875 (c. 25)
An offence under section 8 of the Public Stores Act 1875 (sweeping, etc., near dockyards, artillery ranges, etc.).
North Sea Fisheries Act 1893 (c. 17)
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Seamen’s and Soldiers' False Characters Act 1906 (c. 5)
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Aliens Restriction (Amendment) Act 1919 (c. 92)
An offence under section 3(2) of the Aliens Restriction (Amendment) Act 1919 (promoting industrial unrest).
Children and Young Persons Act 1933 (c. 12)
An offence under section 4 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 (causing or allowing persons under sixteen to be used for begging).
Protection of Animals Act 1934 (c. 21)
An offence under section 2 of the Protection of Animals Act 1934 (offences relating to the prohibition of certain public contests, performances, and exhibitions with animals).
Public Health Act 1936 (c. 49)
An offence under section 287 of the Public Health Act 1936 (power to enter premises).
Essential Commodities Reserves Act 1938 (c. 51)
An offence under section 4(2) of the Essential Commodities Reserves Act 1938 (enforcement).
London Building Acts (Amendment) Act 1939 (c. xcvii)
An offence under section 142 of the London Building Acts (Amendment) Act 1939 (power of Council and others to enter buildings etc).
Cancer Act 1939 (c. 13)
An offence under section 4 of the Cancer Act 1939 (prohibition of certain advertisements).
Civil Defence Act 1939 (c. 31)
An offence under section 77 of the Civil Defence Act 1939 (penalty for false statements).
Hill Farming Act 1946 (c. 73)
An offence under section 19(2) or (3) of the Hill Farming Act 1946 (offences in relation to the control of rams).
Polish Resettlement Act 1947 (c. 19)
An offence under paragraph 7 of the Schedule to the Polish Resettlement Act 1947 (false representation or making a false statement).
Agriculture Act 1947 (c. 48)
An offence under section 14(7) of the Agriculture Act 1947, as remaining in force for the purposes of section 95 of that Act, (directions to secure good estate management and good husbandry).
An offence under section 95 of that Act (failure to comply with a direction to secure production).
Civil Defence Act 1948 (c. 5)
An offence under section 4 of the Civil Defence Act 1948 (powers as to land).
Agricultural Wages Act 1948 (c. 47)
An offence under section 12 of the Agricultural Wages Act 1948 (hindering investigation of complaints etc.).
Wireless Telegraphy Act 1949 (c. 54)
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Prevention of Damage by Pests Act 1949 (c. 55)
An offence under section 22(5) of the Prevention of Damage by Pests Act 1949 (wrongful disclosure of information).
Coast Protection Act 1949 (c. 74)
An offence under section 25(9) of the Coast Protection Act 1949 (powers of entry and inspection).
Pet Animals Act 1951 (c. 35)
An offence under the Pet Animals Act 1951 (offences relating to licensing of pet shops and the sale of pets), other than one under section 4 of that Act.
Cockfighting Act 1952 (c. 59)
An offence under section 1 of the Cockfighting Act 1952 (possession of appliances for use in fighting of domestic fowl).
Agricultural Land (Removal of Surface Soil) Act 1953 (c. 10)
An offence under the Agricultural Land (Removal of Surface Soil) Act 1953 (removal of surface soil without planning permission).
Accommodation Agencies Act 1953 (c. 23)
An offence under section 1 of the Accommodation Agencies Act 1953 (illegal commissions and advertisements).
Army Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 18)
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Air Force Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 19)
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Naval Discipline Act 1957 (c. 53)
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Agricultural Marketing Act 1958 (c. 47)
An offence under section 45 of the Agricultural Marketing Act 1958 (failure to comply with demand for information or knowingly making any false statement in reply thereto).
Rivers (Prevention of Pollution) Act 1961 (c. 50)
An offence under section 12(1) of the Rivers (Prevention of Pollution) Act 1961 (restriction of disclosure of information).
Betting, Gaming and Lotteries Act 1963 (c. 2)
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Children and Young Persons Act 1963 (c. 37)
An offence under section 40 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1963 (offences relating to persons under 16 taking part in public performances etc.).
Animal Boarding Establishments Act 1963 (c. 43)
An offence under the Animal Boarding Establishments Act 1963 (offences in connection with the licensing and inspection of boarding establishments for animals), other than an offence under section 2 of that Act.
Agriculture and Horticulture Act 1964 (c. 28)
An offence under Part 3 of the Agriculture and Horticulture Act 1964 (offences relating to the grading and transport of fresh horticultural produce), other than an offence under section 15(1) of that Act.
Emergency Laws (Re-enactments and Repeals) Act 1964 (c. 60)
An offence under paragraph 1(3) or 2(4) of Schedule 1 to the Emergency Laws (Re-enactments and Repeals) Act 1964 (offences relating to the production of documents).
Riding Establishments Act 1964 (c. 70)
An offence under the Riding Establishments Act 1964 (offences relating to the keeping of riding establishments), other than an offence under section 2(4) of that Act.
Industrial and Provident Societies Act 1965 (c. 12)
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Cereals Marketing Act 1965 (c. 14)
An offence under section 17(1) of the Cereals Marketing Act 1965 (failure to comply with a requirement of a scheme).
Gas Act 1965 (c. 36)
An offence under paragraph 9 of Schedule 6 to the Gas Act 1965 (wrongful disclosure of information).
Armed Forces Act 1966 (c. 45)
An offence under section 8 of the Armed Forces Act 1966 (false statements on entry into Royal Navy).
Agriculture Act 1967 (c. 22)
An offence under section 6(9) of the Agriculture Act 1967 (compulsory use of systems of classification of carcases).
An offence under section 14(2) of that Act (levy schemes: requirements in relation to registration, returns and records).
An offence under section 69 of that Act (false statements to obtain grants etc).
Sea Fisheries (Shellfish) Act 1967 (c. 83)
An offence under section 14(2) of the Sea Fisheries (Shellfish) Act 1967 (offences relating to the deposit and importation of shellfish).
Theatres Act 1968 (c. 54)
An offence under section 13(1) or (2) of the Theatres Act 1968 (offences relating to licensing of premises for public performances of plays).
Theft Act 1968 (c. 60)
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Agriculture Act 1970 (c. 40)
An offence under section 106(8) of the Agriculture Act 1970 (eradication of brucellosis: obstructing or impeding an officer in the exercise of powers to obtain information).
Breeding of Dogs Act 1973 (c. 60)
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Slaughterhouses Act 1974 (c. 3)
An offence under section 4(5) of the Slaughterhouses Act 1974 (knacker’s yard licences and applications for such licences).
National Health Service Act 1977 (c. 49)
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Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43)
An offence under section 84(3) of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (making of false statement as to means).
Animal Health Act 1981 (c. 22)
An offence under paragraph 6 of Schedule 1 to the Animal Health Act 1981 (offences relating to the manufacture of veterinary therapeutic substances).
Fisheries Act 1981 (c. 29)
An offence under section 5(4) of the Fisheries Act 1981 (alteration of records or furnishing false information).
Civil Aviation Act 1982 (c. 16)
An offence under section 82 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982 (using an aircraft for advertising, etc.).
Mental Health Act 1983 (c. 20)
An offence under section 103 of the Mental Health Act 1983 (wrongful disclosure of a report made by a Visitor).
An offence under section 129 of that Act (obstruction).
Building Act 1984 (c. 55)
An offence under section 96(3) of the Building Act 1984 (wrongful disclosure of information).
Surrogacy Arrangements Act 1985 (c. 49)
An offence under section 2 of the Surrogacy Arrangements Act 1985 (negotiating surrogacy arrangements on a commercial basis, etc.).
Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act 1986 (c. 14)
An offence under section 22(3), 23 or 25(3) of the Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act 1986 (false statements and offences in relation to powers of entry).
Motor Cycle Noise Act 1987 (c. 34)
An offence under paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to the Motor Cycle Noise Act 1987 (supply of exhaust systems etc. not complying with prescribed requirements).
Human Organ Transplants Act 1989 (c. 31)
An offence under section 2 of the Human Organ Transplants Act 1989 (restrictions on organ transplants).
Town and Country Planning Act 1990 (c. 8)
An offence under paragraph 14(4) of Schedule 15 to the Town and Country Planning Act 1990 (wrongful disclosure of information).
Environmental Protection Act 1990 (c. 43)
Criminal Justice Act 1991 (c. 53)
An offence under section 20A of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 (false statements as to financial circumstances).
Deer Act 1991 (c. 54)
An offence under section 10(3) of the Deer Act 1991 (offences relating to sale and purchase etc. of venison).
Water Industry Act 1991 (c. 56)
An offence under section 206(2) of the Water Industry Act 1991 (wrongful disclosure of information).
An offence that falls within paragraph 5(5) of Schedule 6 to that Act (wrongful disclosure of information).
Social Security Administration Act 1992 (c. 5)
An offence under section 105 of the Social Security Administration Act 1992 (failure of person to maintain himself or another).
An offence under section 182 of that Act (illegal possession of documents).
Local Government Finance Act 1992 (c. 14)
An offence under section 27(5) of the Local Government Finance Act 1992 (false statements in relation to properties).
Trade Union and Labour Relations (Consolidation) Act 1992 (c. 52)
An offence under section 240 of the Trade Union and Labour Relations (Consolidation) Act 1992 (breach of contract involving injury to persons or property).
Merchant Shipping Act 1995 (c. 21)
An offence under section 57 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1995 (offences relating to merchant navy uniforms).
Reserve Forces Act 1996 (c. 14)
An offence under section 75(5) of the Reserve Forces Act 1996 (making false statements).
An offence under section 87(1) of that Act (offences in connection with claims for payment).
An offence under section 99 of that Act (false pretence of illegal absence).
An offence under paragraph 5(1) of Schedule 1 to that Act (false answers in attestation papers).
Housing Act 1996 (c. 52)
An offence under paragraph 23 or 24 of Schedule 1 to the Housing Act 1996 (contravening order not to part with money etc. held on behalf of a social landlord).
Broadcasting Act 1996 (c. 55)
An offence under section 144 of the Broadcasting Act 1996 (providing false information in connection with licences).
Breeding and Sale of Dogs (Welfare) Act 1999 (c. 11)
An offence under section 8 or 9(6) of the Breeding and Sale of Dogs (Welfare) Act 1999 (offences relating to the sale of dogs and connected matters).
Transport Act 2000 (c. 38)
An offence under section 82(2) of the Transport Act 2000 (wrongful disclosure of information).
Increase in maximum term for certain summary offences
Railway Regulation Act 1840 (c. 97)
In section 16 of the Railway Regulation Act 1840 (obstructing officers or trespassing upon railway), for “one month”, there is substituted
Licensing Act 1872 (c. 94)
In section 12 of the Licensing Act 1872 (penalty for being found drunk), for “one month” there is substituted
Regulation of Railways Act 1889 (c. 57)
In section 5 of the Regulation of Railways Act 1889 (avoiding payment of fares, etc.), in subsection (3), for “three months” there is substituted
Witnesses (Public Inquiries) Protection Act 1892 (c. 64)
In section 2 of the Witnesses (Public Inquiries) Protection Act 1892 (persons obstructing or intimidating witnesses), for “three months” there is substituted
Licensing Act 1902 (c. 28)
In section 2 of the Licensing Act 1902 (penalty for being drunk while in charge of a child), in subsection (1), for “one month” there is substituted
Emergency Powers Act 1920 (c. 55)
In section 2 of the Emergency Powers Act 1920 (emergency regulations), in subsection (3), for “three months” there is substituted
Judicial Proceedings (Regulation of Reports) Act 1926 (c. 61)
In section 1 of the Judicial Proceedings (Regulation of Reports) Act 1926 (restriction on publication of reports of judicial proceedings), in subsection (2), for “four months” there is substituted
Public Order Act 1936 (1 Edw. 8 & 1 Geo. 6 c. 6)
In section 7 of the Public Order Act 1936 (enforcement), in subsection (2), for “three months” there is substituted
Cinematograph Films (Animals) Act 1937 (c. 59)
In section 1 of the Cinematograph Films (Animals) Act 1937 (prohibition of films involving cruelty to animals), in subsection (3), for “three months” there is substituted
House to House Collections Act 1939 (c. 44)
In section 8 of the House to House Collections Act 1939, in subsection (2), for “three months” there is substituted
Fire Services Act 1947 (c. 41)
In section 31 of the Fire Services Act 1947 (false alarms of fire), in subsection (1), for “three months” there is substituted
National Assistance Act 1948 (c. 29)
The National Assistance Act 1948 is amended as follows.
In section 51 (failure to maintain), in subsection (3)(a) . . . , for “three months” there is substituted
In section 52 (false statements), in subsection (1), for “three months” there is substituted
Docking and Nicking of Horses Act 1949 (c. 70)
The Docking and Nicking of Horses Act 1949 is amended as follows.
In section 1 (prohibition of docking and nicking except in certain cases), in subsection (3), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 2 (restriction on landing docked horses)—for “3 months” there is substituted
in subsection (3), and
in subsection (4),
Protection of Animals (Amendment) Act 1954 (c. 40)
In section 2 of the Protection of Animals (Amendment) Act 1954 (breach of disqualification order), for “three months” there is substituted
Children and Young Persons (Harmful Publications) Act 1955 (c. 28)
In section 2 of the Children and Young Persons (Harmful Publications) Act 1955 (penalty for publishing certain works etc.), in subsection (1), for “four months” there is substituted
Agriculture Act 1957 (c. 57)
In section 7 of the Agriculture Act 1957 (penalties)—
in subsection (1), for “three months” there is substituted
in subsection (2), for “one month” there is substituted
Animals (Cruel Poisons) Act 1962 (c. 26)
In section 1 of the Animals (Cruel Poisons) Act 1962 (offences and penalties under regulations), in paragraph (b), for “three months” there is substituted
Plant Varieties and Seeds Act 1964 (c. 14)
In section 27 of the Plant Varieties and Seeds Act 1964 (tampering with samples), in subsection (1), for “three months” there is substituted
Agriculture Act 1967 (c. 22)
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Firearms Act 1968 (c. 27)
Part 1 of Schedule 6 to the Firearms Act 1968 (prosecution and punishment of offences) is amended as follows.
In the entry relating to section 3(6) of that Act (business and other transactions with firearms and ammunition), in the fourth column, for “3 months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks. ”
In the entry relating to section 6(3) of that Act (power to prohibit movement of arms and ammunition), in the fourth column, for “3 months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks. ”
In the entry relating to section 20(2) of that Act (trespassing with firearm), in the fourth column, for “3 months” there is substituted
In the entry relating to section 22(1A) of that Act (acquisition and possession of firearms by minors), in the fourth column, for “3 months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks. ”
In the entry relating to section 25 of that Act (supplying firearm to person drunk or insane), in the fourth column, for “3 months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks. ”
In the entry relating to section 32C(6) of that Act (variation endorsement etc. of European documents), in the fourth column, for “3 months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks. ”
In the entry relating to section 42A of that Act (information as to transactions under visitors' permits), in the fourth column, for “3 months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks. ”
In the entry relating to section 47(2) of that Act (powers of constables to stop and search), in the fourth column, for “3 months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks. ”
In the entry relating to section 49(3) of that Act (police powers in relation to arms traffic), in the fourth column, for “3 months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks. ”
Agriculture (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1968 (c. 34)
In section 7 of the Agriculture (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1968 (punishment of offences under Part 1), in subsection (1), for “three months” there is substituted
Agriculture Act 1970 (c. 40)
The Agriculture Act 1970 is amended as follows.
In section 68 (duty to give statutory statement), in subsection (4), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 69 (marking of material prepared for sale), in subsection (4), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 70 (use of names or expressions with prescribed meanings), in subsection (2), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 71 (particulars to be given of attributes if claimed to be present), in subsection (2), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 73 (deleterious ingredients in feeding stuff), in subsection (4), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 73A (unwholesome feeding stuff), in subsection (4), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 74A (regulations controlling the contents of feeding stuff), in subsection (3), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 79 (supplementary provision relating to samples and analysis), in subsection (10), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 83 (exercise of powers by inspectors), in subsection (3), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 106 (eradication of brucellosis), in subsection (7), for “three months” there is substituted
Slaughterhouses Act 1974 (c. 3)
The Slaughterhouses Act 1974 is amended as follows.
In section 20 (wrongful disclosure of information), in subsection (4), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 21 (obstruction), in subsection (1), for “one month” there is substituted
In section 23 (prosecution and punishment of offences), in subsection (2)(a), for “three months” there is substituted
Criminal Law Act 1977 (c. 45)
In section 8 of the Criminal Law Act 1977 (trespassing with a weapon of offence), in subsection (3), for “three months” there is substituted
Refuse Disposal (Amenity) Act 1978 (c. 3)
In section 2 of the Refuse Disposal (Amenity) Act 1978 (penalty for unauthorised dumping), in subsection (1), for “three months” there is substituted
Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2)
The Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 is amended as follows.
In section 21 (control of movement of aircraft), in subsection (6), for “3 months” there is substituted
In section 33 (power to inspect aircraft etc.), in subsection (4), for “3 months” there is substituted
In section 34 (power to prevent flight of aircraft)—for “3 months” there is substituted
in subsection (2), and
in subsection (3),
Licensed Premises (Exclusion of Certain Persons) Act 1980 (c. 32)
In section 2 of the Licensed Premises (Exclusion of Certain Persons) Act 1980 (penalty for non-compliance with an exclusion order), in subsection (1), for “one month” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”.
Criminal Attempts Act 1981 (c. 47)
In section 9 of the Criminal Attempts Act 1981 (interference with vehicles), in subsection (3), for “three months” there is substituted
British Nationality Act 1981 (c. 61)
In section 46 of the British Nationality Act 1981 (offences and proceedings), in subsection (1) for “three months” there is substituted
Civil Aviation Act 1982 (c. 16)
The Civil Aviation Act 1982 is amended as follows.
In section 44 (offences relating to the power to obtain rights over land), in subsection (10), for “three months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”
In section 75 (investigation of accidents), in subsection (5), for “three months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”
Anatomy Act 1984 (c. 14)
In section 11 of the Anatomy Act 1984 (offences), in subsection (6), for “3 months” there is substituted
Public Health (Control of Disease) Act 1984 (c. 22)
The Public Health (Control of Disease) Act 1984 is amended as follows.
In section 29 (letting of house after recent case of notifiable disease), in subsection (1), for “one month” there is substituted
In section 30 (duty on ceasing to occupy house after recent case of notifiable disease), in subsection (1), for “one month” there is substituted
In section 62 (powers of entry), in subsection (3), for “3 months” there is substituted
County Courts Act 1984 (c. 28)
The County Courts Act 1984 is amended as follows.
In section 14 (penalty for assaulting officers), in subsection (1)(a), for “3 months” there is substituted
In section 92 (penalty for rescuing goods seized), in subsection (1)(a), for “one month” there is substituted
Animal Health and Welfare Act 1984 (c. 40)
In section 10 of the Animal Health and Welfare Act 1984 (artificial breeding of livestock), in subsection (6), for “three months” there is substituted
Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60)
In section 63C of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (testing for presence of drugs), in subsection (1), for “three months” there is substituted
Sporting Events (Control of Alcohol etc.) Act 1985 (c. 57)
In section 8 of the Sporting Events (Control of Alcohol etc.) Act 1985 (penalties for offences), in paragraph (b), for “three months” there is substituted
Public Order Act 1986 (c. 64)
The Public Order Act 1986 is amended as follows.
In section 12 (imposing conditions on public processions)—for “3 months” there is substituted
in subsection (8), and
in subsection (10),
In section 13 (prohibiting public processions)—for “3 months” there is substituted
in subsection (11), and
in subsection (13),
In section 14 (imposing conditions on public assemblies)—for “3 months” there is substituted
in subsection (8), and
in subsection (10),
In section 14B (offences in connection with trespassory assemblies and arrest therefor)—for “3 months” there is substituted
in subsection (5), and
in subsection (7),
Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 (c. 53)
Part 1 of Schedule 2 to the Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 (prosecution and punishment of offenders) is amended as follows.
In the entry relating to section 4(2) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 (driving, or being in charge, when under the influence of drink or drugs), in column 4, for “3 months” there is substituted
In the entry relating to section 5(1)(b) of that Act (driving or being in charge of a motor vehicle with alcohol concentration above prescribed limit), in column 4, for “3 months” there is substituted
In the entry relating to section 7 of that Act (provision of specimens for analysis), in column 4, for “3 months” there is substituted
In the entry relating to section 7A of that Act (failing to allow specimen to be subjected to analysis), in column 4, for “3 months” there is substituted
Official Secrets Act 1989 (c. 6)
In section 10 of the Official Secrets Act 1989 (penalties), in subsection (2), for “three months” there is substituted
Human Organ Transplants Act 1989 (c. 31)
In section 1 of the Human Organ Transplants Act 1989 (prohibition of commercial dealings in human organs), in subsection (5), for “three months” there is substituted
Football Spectators Act 1989 (c. 37)
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Food Safety Act 1990 (c. 16)
In section 35 of the Food Safety Act 1990 (punishment of offences), in subsection (1), for “three months” there is substituted
Deer Act 1991 (c. 54)
In section 9 of the Deer Act 1991 (penalties for offences relating to deer), in subsection (1), for “three months” there is substituted
Social Security Administration Act 1992 (c. 5)
In section 112 of the Social Security Administration Act 1992 (false representations for obtaining benefit etc.), in subsection (2), for “3 months” there is substituted
Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 (c. 33)
The Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 is amended as follows.
In section 60 (failing to stop), in subsection (8), for “one month” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”.
In section 60AA (powers to require removal of disguises), in subsection (7), for “one month” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”.
In section 61 (power to remove trespasser on land), in subsection (4), for “three months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”.
In section 62B (failure to comply with direction under section 62A: offences), in subsection (3), for “3 months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”.
In section 63 (powers to remove persons attending or preparing for a rave), in subsections (6) and (7B), for “three months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”.
In section 68 (offence of aggravated trespass), in subsection (3), for “three months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”.
In section 69 (powers to remove persons committing or participating in aggravated trespass), in subsection (3), for “three months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”.
London Local Authorities Act 1995 (c. x)
In section 24 of the London Local Authorities Act 1995 (enforcement), in subsection (1), for “three months” there is substituted
Police Act 1996 (c. 16)
In section 89 of the Police Act 1996 (assaults on constables etc.), in subsection (2), for “one month” there is substituted
Treasure Act 1996 (c. 24)
In section 8 of the Treasure Act 1996 (duty of finder of treasure to notify coroner), in subsection (3)(a), for “three months” there is substituted
Education Act 1996 (c. 56)
The Education Act 1996 is amended as follows.
In section 444 (failure to secure regular attendance at school), in subsection (8A)(b), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 559 (prohibition or restriction on employment of children), in subsection (4)(b), for “one month” there is substituted
Government of Wales Act 1998 (c. 38)
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Access to Justice Act 1999 (c. 22)
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Greater London Authority Act 1999 (c. 29)
In section 64 of the Greater London Authority Act 1999 (failure to attend proceedings etc), in subsection (2)(b), for “three months” there is substituted
Immigration and Asylum Act 1999 (c. 33)
The Immigration and Asylum Act 1999 is amended as follows.
In section 105 (false representation), in subsection (2), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 108 (failure of sponsor to maintain), in subsection (2), for “3 months” there is substituted
Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8)
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 is amended as follows.
In section 177 (offences), in subsection (6), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 352 (offences), in subsection (5), for “three months” there is substituted
Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
The Terrorism Act 2000 is amended as follows.
In section 36 (police powers), in subsection (4)(a), for “three months” there is substituted
In section 51 (offences in relation to parking), in subsection (6)(a), for “three months” there is substituted
In Schedule 5 (terrorist investigations: information)—for “three months” there is substituted
in paragraph 3(8)(a), and
in paragraph 15(5)(a),
In Schedule 7 (ports and border controls), in paragraph 18(2)(a), for “three months” there is substituted
Criminal Justice and Police Act 2001 (c. 16)
The Criminal Justice and Police Act 2001 is amended as follows.
In section 25 (enforcement of closure orders)—
in subsection (3)(a), for “one month” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”, and
in subsections (4) and (5), for “three months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”.
In section 42 (prevention of intimidation), in subsection (7), for “three months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”.
Police Reform Act 2002 (c. 30)
In section 46 of the Police Reform Act 2002 (offences against designated and accredited persons etc.), in subsection (2), for “one month” there is substituted
Nationality, Immigration and Asylum Act 2002 (c. 41)
In section 137 of the Nationality, Immigration and Asylum Act 2002 (offences relating to the disclosure of information), in subsection (2)(a), for “three months” there is substituted “ 51 weeks ”.
Anti-social Behaviour Act 2003 (c. 38)
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Enabling powers: alteration of maximum penalties etc.
Plant Health Act 1967 (c. 8)
Section 3 of the Plant Health Act 1967 (control of spread of pests in Great Britain) is amended as follows.
In subsection (4A), for “three months” there is substituted “ the prescribed term ”.
After that subsection there is inserted—
Agriculture Act 1967 (c. 22)
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Slaughterhouses Act 1974 (c. 3)
In section 38(5) of the Slaughterhouses Act 1974 (maximum penalties to be prescribed by regulations), the words “or imprisonment for a term of three months or both” are omitted.
Anatomy Act 1984 (c. 14)
Section 11 of the Anatomy Act 1984 (offences) is amended as follows.
In subsection (7), for “3 months” there is substituted “ the prescribed term ”.
After that subsection there is inserted—
Environmental Protection Act 1990 (c. 43)
Section 141 of the Environmental Protection Act 1990 (power to prohibit or restrict the importation or exportation of waste) is amended as follows.
In paragraph (g) of subsection (5), for “six months” there is substituted “ the prescribed term ”.
After that subsection there is inserted—
Scotland Act 1998 (c. 46)
Section 113 of the Scotland Act 1998 (subordinate legislation: scope of powers) is amended as follows.
In paragraph (a) of subsection (10), for “three months” there is substituted “ the prescribed term ”.
After that subsection there is inserted—
Regulatory Reform Act 2001 (c. 6)
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Increase in penalties for drug-related offences
Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 (c. 38)
Schedule 4 to the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 (prosecution and punishment of offences) is amended as follows.
In column 6 of that Schedule (punishments for offences under that Act committed in relation to Class C drugs), in each of the following entries, for “5 years” there is substituted “ 14 years ”.
Those entries are the entries relating to the punishment, on conviction on indictment, of offences under the following provisions of that Act—
section 4(2) (production, or being concerned in the production, of a controlled drug),
section 4(3) (supplying or offering to supply a controlled drug or being concerned in the doing of either activity by another),
section 5(3) (having possession of a controlled drug with intent to supply it to another),
section 8 (being the occupier, or concerned in the management, of premises and permitting or suffering certain activities to take place there),
section 12(6) (contravention of direction prohibiting practitioner etc from possessing, supplying etc controlled drugs), and
section 13(3) (contravention of direction prohibiting practitioner etc from prescribing, supplying etc controlled drugs).
Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2)
In Schedule 1 to the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (controlled drugs: variation of punishments for certain offences under that Act), in paragraph 2(c) (punishment on conviction on indictment of offences under that Act committed in relation to Class C drugs), for “5 years” there is substituted “ 14 years ”.
Criminal Justice (International Co-operation) Act 1990 (c. 5)
In section 19 of the Criminal Justice (International Co-operation) Act 1990 (ships used for illicit traffic), in subsection (4)(c)(ii) (punishment on conviction on indictment of offences under that section committed in relation to Class C drugs), for “five years” there is substituted “ fourteen years ”.
The Firearms (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/155 (N.I. 2)) is amended as follows.
In Article 2(2) (interpretation) after the definition of “firearms dealer” there is inserted—.
In Article 3(1) (requirement of firearm certificate) for sub-paragraph (a) there is substituted—.
After Article 52 of that Order there is inserted—
After Article 52A there is inserted—
Schedule 2 (table of punishments) is amended as follows.
For the entry relating to offences under Article 3(1) (purchase, acquisition or possession of firearm or ammunition without firearm certificate) there is substituted—.
For the entries relating to offences under Article 6(1) (manufacture, dealing in or possession of prohibited weapons) and Article 6(1A) (possession of or dealing in other prohibited weapons) there is substituted—.
Disqualification from working with children
The Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000 (c. 43) is amended as follows.
After section 29 there is inserted—
Section 30 (supplemental provisions) is amended as follows.
In the heading for “and 29” there is substituted “ to 29B ”.
In subsection (1)—
for “and 29” there is substituted “ to 29B ”, and
in the definition of “qualifying sentence”, after paragraph (d) there is inserted—.
In subsection (5)—
in paragraph (a), for “or 29” there is substituted “ , 29 or 29A ”,
after paragraph (b) there is inserted—
In section 31 (appeals), in subsection (1), after paragraph (b) there is inserted—
In subsection (6), after paragraph (d) there is inserted—.
For subsection (8) there is substituted—.
Default orders: modification of provisions relating to community orders
General
Any reference to the offender is, in relation to a default order, to be read as a reference to the person in default.
Unpaid work requirement
In its application to a default order, paragraph 2 of Schedule 9 to the Sentencing Code (unpaid work requirement) is modified as follows.
In sub-paragraph (1)(b), for sub-paragraphs (i) and (ii) there is substituted—;
Sub-paragraphs (3) and (4) are omitted.
Curfew requirement
In its application to a default order, paragraph 9 of Schedule 9 to the Sentencing Code (curfew requirement) is modified as follows.
Any reference to an offence of which the offender was convicted before, on or after a day is to be read as a reference to a default made by a person before, on or after that day.
After sub-paragraph (4A) there is inserted—
Attendance centre requirement
In its application to a default order, paragraph 27(3) of Schedule 9 to the Sentencing Code (attendance centre requirement) is modified by the substitution for the words after “must” of “be—.
not less than 12, and
in the case of an amount in default which is specified in the first column of the following Table, not more than the number of hours set out opposite that amount in the second column.
Change of residence
In its application to a default order, section 215 of the Sentencing Code(duty of offender to keep in touch with responsible officer) is modified as follows.
At the end of subsection (2) there is inserted “, and must notify the responsible officer of any change of address.”
Section 216 of the Sentencing Code(duty to obtain permission before changing residence) does not apply in relation to a default order.
Enforcement, revocation and amendment of default order
In its application to a default order, Schedule 10 to the Sentencing Code (breach, revocation or amendment of community order) is modified as follows.
Any reference to the offence in respect of which the community order was made is to be taken to be a reference to the default in respect of which the default order was made.
Any power of the court to revoke the community order and re-sentence the offender for the offence is to be taken to be a power to revoke the default order and deal with him in any way in which the court which made the default order could deal with him for his default in paying the sum in question.
In paragraph 5 the reference to the Crown Court is to be taken as a reference to a magistrates' court.
For paragraphs 16 and 17 there is substituted—
The following provisions are omitted—
paragraph 10(5)(d) (in relation to any time after the coming into force of paragraph 21(2) of Schedule 22 to the Sentencing Act 2020);
paragraph 10(11);
paragraph 14(8);
paragraph 16(3) (in relation to any time after the coming into force of paragraph 23 of Schedule 22 to that Act);
paragraph 23(6);
paragraph 25(2)(b).
Power to alter amount of money or number of hours or days
The Secretary of State may by order amend paragraph 2 , 3 or 3A by substituting for any reference to an amount of money or a number of hours or days there specified a reference to such other amount or number as may be specified in the order.
Transfer of default orders to Scotland or Northern Ireland
In its application to a default order, Schedule 11 to the Sentencing Code (transfer of community orders to Scotland or Northern Ireland) is modified as follows.
After paragraph 20 there is inserted—
In paragraph 21, after sub-paragraph (5) there is inserted—
Amendments relating to sentencing
General
Piracy Act 1837 (c. 88)
Section 3 of the Piracy Act 1837 (punishment for offence under certain repealed Acts relating to piracy) shall cease to have effect.
Children and Young Persons Act 1933 (c. 12)
Section 49 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 (restrictions on reports of proceedings in which young persons are concerned) is amended as follows.
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In subsection (11)—
in the definition of “sexual offence”, for “has the same meaning as in the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000” there is substituted “ means an offence listed in Part 2 of Schedule 15 to the Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”, and
in the definition of “violent offence, for “has the same meaning as in the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000” there is substituted “ means an offence listed in Part 1 of Schedule 15 to the Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”.
Prison Act 1952 (c. 52)
Criminal Justice Act 1967 (c. 80)
The Criminal Justice Act 1967 is amended as follows.
In section 32 (amendments of Costs in Criminal Cases Act 1952), in subsection (3)(a), for “make an order under paragraph 5 of Schedule 2 to the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (probation orders requiring treatment for mental condition) or” there is substituted “ include in a community order (within the meaning of Part 12 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003) a mental health requirement under section 207 of that Act or make an order under ”.
In section 104 (general provisions as to interpretation)_
in subsection (1), the definition of “suspended sentence” is omitted, and
subsection (2) is omitted.
Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19)
The Criminal Appeal Act 1968 is amended as follows.
Section 10 (appeal against sentence in cases dealt with by Crown Court otherwise than on conviction on indictment) is amended as follows.
In subsection (2) —
in paragraph (b), for “or a community order within the meaning of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000” there is substituted “ a youth community order within the meaning of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 or a community order within the meaning of Part 12 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”, and
paragraph (c) and the word “or” immediately preceding it are omitted.
In section 11 (supplementary provisions as to appeal against sentence), subsection (4) is omitted.
In Schedule 2 (procedural and other provisions applicable on order for retrial), in paragraph 2(4), for the words from the beginning to “apply” there is substituted “ Section 240 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (crediting of periods of remand in custody: terms of imprisonment and detention) shall apply ”.
Firearms Act 1968 (c. 27)
The Firearms Act 1968 is amended as follows.
Section 21 (possession of firearms by persons previously convicted of crime) is amended as follows.
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In subsection (3)(b), for “probation order” there is substituted “ community order ”.
After subsection (3) there is inserted—
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Section 52 (forfeiture and disposal of firearms; cancellation of certificate by convicting court) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1)(c), for “probation order” there is substituted “ community order ”.
After subsection (1) there is inserted —
Social Work (Scotland) Act 1968 (c. 49)
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Children and Young Persons Act 1969 (c. 54)
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Immigration Act 1971 (c. 77)
In section 7 of the Immigration Act 1971 (exemption from deportation for certain existing residents), in subsection (4), for “section 67 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967” there is substituted “ section 240 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”.
Thames Barrier and Flood Prevention Act 1972 (c. xiv)
In section 56 of the Thames Barrier and Flood Prevention Act 1972 (orders for carrying out certain defence works), in subsection (3)(a)(ii), for “six months” there is substituted “ 12 months ”.
Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 (c. 53)
Section 5 of the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 (rehabilitation periods for particular offences) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1)—
at the end of paragraph (e), there is inserted “ and ”, and
after that paragraph, there is inserted the following paragraph—
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Armed Forces Act 1976 (c. 52)
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Bail Act 1976 (c. 63)
The Bail Act 1976 is amended as follows.
Section 2 (other definitions) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1)(d)—
the words “placing the offender on probation or” are omitted, and
for “him” there is substituted “ the offender ”.
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In section 4 (general right to bail of accused persons and others), in subsection (3), for the words from “to be dealt with” onwards there is substituted
Criminal Law Act 1977 (c. 45)
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Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43)
The Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 is amended as follows.
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Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1980 (c. 55)
In Schedule 1 to the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1980 (ineligibility for and disqualification and excusal from jury service), in Part 2, in paragraph (bb), for sub-paragraph (v) there is substituted—.
Public Passenger Vehicles Act 1981 (c. 14)
In Schedule 3 to the Public Passenger Vehicles Act 1981 (supplementary provisions as to qualifications for PSV operators licence), paragraph 1 is amended as follows.
In sub-paragraph (4)(a), for “a community service order for more than sixty hours” there is substituted “ a community order requiring the offender to perform unpaid work for more than sixty hours ”.
In sub-paragraph (6), for the words from “ “a community” onwards there is substituted “ “a community order” means an order under section 177 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003, a community punishment order made before the commencement of that section or a community service order under the Community Service by Offenders (Scotland) Act 1978”.
Criminal Attempts Act 1981 (c. 47)
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Criminal Justice Act 1982 (c. 48)
The Criminal Justice Act 1982 is amended as follows.
Part 3 of Schedule 13 (reciprocal arrangements (Northern Ireland): persons residing in England and Wales or Scotland) is amended as follows.
In paragraph 7—
in sub-paragraph (2)(b), for “such orders” there is substituted “ an unpaid work requirement of a community order (within the meaning of Part 12 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003) ”, and
in sub-paragraph (3)(b), for the words from “community service orders” onwards there is substituted “ community orders within the meaning of Part 12 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 conferred on responsible officers by that Part of that Act. ”.
For paragraph 9(3) there is substituted—
In paragraph 9(4)(a), after “community service orders” there is inserted “ or, as the case may be, community orders (within the meaning of Part 12 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003) ”.
In paragraph 9(5), after “a community service order” there is inserted “ or, as the case may be, a community order (within the meaning of Part 12 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003) ”.
In paragraph 9(6)—
after “community service orders”, where first occurring, there is inserted “ or, as the case may be, community orders (within the meaning of Part 12 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003) ”, and
in paragraph (b)(i), for “the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000” there is substituted “ Part 12 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”.
Mental Health Act 1983 (c. 20)
The Mental Health Act 1983 is amended as follows.
In section 37 (powers of courts to order hospital admission or guardianship)—
in subsection (1), the words “or falls to be imposed under section 109(2) of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000” are omitted,
for subsections (1A) and (1B) there is substituted —
in subsection (8), for “probation order” there is substituted “ community order (within the meaning of Part 12 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003) ”.
In section 45A (powers of higher courts to direct hospital admission), in subsection (1)(b), the words from “except” to “1997” are omitted.
Repatriation of Prisoners Act 1984 (c. 47)
The Repatriation of Prisoners Act 1984 is amended as follows.
In section 2 (transfer out of the United Kingdom), in subsection (4)(b), for sub-paragraph (i) there is substituted—.
In section 3 (transfer into the United Kingdom), subsection (9) is omitted.
The Schedule (operation of certain enactments in relation to the prisoner) is amended as follows in relation to prisoners repatriated to England and Wales.
In paragraph 2, for sub-paragraphs (1A) and (2) there is substituted—.
Paragraph 3 is omitted.
Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60)
In section 38 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (duties of custody officer after charge), for the definitions of “sexual offence” and “violent offence” in subsection (6A) there is substituted—.
Criminal Justice Act 1988 (c. 33)
The Criminal Justice Act 1988 is amended as follows.
In section 36 (reviews of sentencing), in subsection (2), for the words from “erred in law” onwards there is substituted—
In section 50 (suspended and partly suspended sentences on certain civilians in courts-martial and Standing Civilian Courts), in subsection (3)(b)(i), for “Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000” there is substituted “ Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”.
Firearms (Amendment) Act 1988 (c. 45)
The Firearms (Amendment) Act 1988 is amended as follows.
In section 1 (prohibited weapons and ammunition), in subsection (4A) after paragraph (b) there is inserted—.
In section 27(4) (which relates to Northern Ireland), after “Except for” there is inserted “ section 1, so far as enabling provision to be made amending the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979, and ”.
Road Traffic Act 1988 (c. 52)
Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 (c. 53)
The Road Traffic Offenders Act 1988 is amended as follows.
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Football Spectators Act 1989 (c. 37)
The Football Spectators Act 1989 is amended as follows.
In section 7 (disqualification for membership of scheme), subsection (9) is omitted.
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Children Act 1989 (c. 41)
The Children Act 1989 is amended as follows.
Section 68 (persons disqualified from being foster parents) is amended as follows.
In subsection (2)(d), the words “a probation order has been made in respect of him or he has been” are omitted.
After subsection (2) there is inserted—
In Schedule 9A (child minding and day care for young children), paragraph 4 is amended as follows.
In sub-paragraph (2)(g), the words “placed on probation or” are omitted.
At the end there is inserted—.
Criminal Justice Act 1991 (c. 53)
The Criminal Justice Act 1991 is amended as follows.
Section 65 (supervision of young offenders after release) is omitted.
Schedule 3 (reciprocal enforcement of certain orders) is amended as follows.
In paragraph 11(2) —
in paragraph (a)—
for “probation order” there is substituted “ community order ”, and
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for paragraph (b) there is substituted—.
In paragraph 11(3), for paragraphs (a) and (b) there is substituted—.
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Aggravated Vehicle-Taking Act 1992 (c. 11)
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Prisoners and Criminal Proceedings (Scotland) Act 1993 (c. 9)
In section 10 of the Prisoners and Criminal Proceedings (Scotland) Act 1993 (life prisoners transferred to Scotland)—
in subsection (1)—
in paragraph (a), sub-paragraph (i), and the succeeding “or”, are omitted, and
after paragraph (a)(ii) there is inserted, and
for “28(2)(b) or 82A(2) or paragraph” there is substituted “ 82A(2), 28(2)(b) or 269(2) or paragraph 3(1)(a) or ”;
after subsection (1) there is inserted—; and
in subsection (5)(b)—
for “the Crime (Sentences) Act 1997” there is substituted “ the 1997 Act ”, and
after the words “Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6)” there is inserted “ section 269(2) of, or paragraph 3(1)(a) of Schedule 22 to, the Criminal Justice Act 2003, ”.
Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 (c. 33)
In section 25 of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 (no bail for defendants charged with or convicted of homicide or rape after previous conviction of such offences), in paragraph (c) of the definition of “conviction” in subsection (5)—
the words “placing the offender on probation or” are omitted, and
for “him” there is substituted “ the offender ”.
Goods Vehicles (Licensing of Operators) Act 1995 (c. 23)
In Schedule 3 to the Goods Vehicles (Licensing of Operators) Act 1995 (qualifications for standard licence), paragraph 3 is amended as follows.
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In sub-paragraph (2)(c), for “community service order” there is substituted “ community order ”.
For sub-paragraph (3)(b), there is substituted—.
Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46)
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Education Act 1996 (c. 56)
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Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 1996 (S.I. 1996/3160 (N.I.24))
The Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 1996 is amended as follows.
In Article 2 (interpretation) after paragraph (8) there is inserted—
In Article 4 (absolute and conditional discharge), in paragraph (1), for “(not being an offence for which the sentence is fixed by law)” there is substituted “ (not being an offence for which the sentence is fixed by law or falls to be imposed under Article 52A(2) of the Firearms (Northern Ireland) Order 1981) ”.
In Article 10 (probation orders), in paragraph (1) for “(not being an offence for which the sentence is fixed by law)” there is substituted “ (not being an offence for which the sentence is fixed by law or falls to be imposed under Article 52A(2) of the Firearms (Northern Ireland) Order 1981) ”.
Article 13 (community service orders) is amended as follows.
In paragraph (1) for “(not being an offence for which the sentence is fixed by law)” there is substituted “ (not being an offence for which the sentence is fixed by law or falls to be imposed under Article 52A(2) of the Firearms (Northern Ireland) Order 1981) ”.
In paragraph (4)(b) as it has effect pursuant to paragraph 7(1) of Schedule 13 to the Criminal Justice Act 1982 (reciprocal arrangements), for “such orders” there is substituted “ an unpaid work requirement of a community order (within the meaning of Part 12 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003) ”.
In Article 15 (orders combining probation and community service), in paragraph (1) for “(not being an offence for which the sentence is fixed by law)” there is substituted “ (not being an offence for which the sentence is fixed by law or falls to be imposed under Article 52A(2) of the Firearms (Northern Ireland) Order 1981) ”.
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Crime (Sentences) Act 1997 (c. 43)
The Crime (Sentences) Act 1997 is amended as follows.
Section 31 (duration and conditions of licences) is amended as follows.
In subsection (3), for the words from “except” onwards there is substituted “ except in accordance with recommendations of the Parole Board ”.
Subsection (4) is omitted.
In section 32 (recall of life prisoners while on licence) for subsection (5) there is substituted—
Schedule 1 (transfers of prisoners within the British Islands) is amended as follows.
In paragraph 6, after sub-paragraph (3) there is inserted—
In paragraph 8 (restricted transfers from England and Wales to Scotland)—
for sub-paragraph (2)(a) there is substituted—,
for sub-paragraph (4)(a) there is substituted—, and
for sub-paragraphs (5) to (7) there is substituted—
In paragraph 9 (restricted transfers from England and Wales to Northern Ireland)—
for sub-paragraph (2)(a) there is substituted—,
for sub-paragraph (4)(a) there is substituted—,
for sub-paragraphs (5) to (7) there is substituted—
In paragraph 15 (unrestricted transfers: general provisions), sub-paragraph (5) is omitted.
In Schedule 2 (repatriation of prisoners to the British Islands) paragraphs 2 and 3 are omitted.
Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (c. 37)
The Crime and Disorder Act 1998 is amended as follows.
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Section 38 (local provision of youth justice services) is amended as follows.
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In subsection (4)(i), after “1997 Act”)” there is inserted “ or by virtue of conditions imposed under section 250 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”.
Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6)
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For section 33 there is substituted—
Section 36B (electronic monitoring of requirements in community orders) is amended as follows.
In the heading for “community orders” there is substituted “ youth community orders ”, and
In subsection (1)—
for “to (4)” there is substituted “ and (3) ”, and
for “community order” there is substituted “ youth community order ”.
In subsection (2) and (6)(a), for “community order” there is substituted “ youth community order ”.
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Section 60 (attendance centre orders) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1)—
in paragraph (b), for “18” there is substituted “ 16 ”, and
paragraph (c) and the word “or” immediately preceding it are omitted.
In subsection (4), for paragraphs (a) and (b) there is substituted “ shall not exceed 24 ”.
In subsection (7), for “community order” there is substituted “ youth community order ”.
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In section 74 (requirements and provisions of reparation order, and obligations of person subject to it), in subsection (3)(a), after “community order” there is inserted “ or any youth community order ”.
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Section 163 (interpretation) is amended as follows.
In the definition of “attendance centre order” for the words from “by virtue of” to “Schedule 3” there is substituted “ by virtue of paragraph 4(2)(b) or 5(2)(b) of Schedule 3 ”.
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At the end there is inserted—.
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Child Support, Pensions and Social Security Act 2000 (c. 19)
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Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000 (c. 43)
The Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000 is amended as follows.
In section 1 (purposes of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of the Act), in subsection (2)—
in paragraph (a), after “community orders” there is inserted “ (as defined by section 177 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003) ”, and
after paragraph (c) there is inserted—
Section 62 (release on licence etc: conditions as to monitoring) is amended as follows.
For subsection (3) there is substituted—
In subsection (5) after paragraph (e) there is inserted.
In section 69 (duties of local probation boards in connection with victims of certain offences), in subsection (8), for paragraph (a) there is substituted—.
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International Criminal Court Act 2001 (c. 17)
Schedule 7 to the International Criminal Court Act 2001 (domestic provisions not applicable to ICC prisoners), is amended as follows.
In paragraph 2(1), for paragraph (d) there is substituted—
Armed Forces Act 2001 (c. 19)
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Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c. 29)
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Sexual Offences Act 2003 (c. 42)
The Sexual Offences Act 2003 is amended as follows.
In section 131 (application of Part 2 to young offenders), after paragraph (j) there is inserted—.
In section 133 (general interpretation), at the end of paragraph (a) of the definition of “community order” there is inserted “ (as that Act had effect before the passing of the Criminal Justice Act 2003) ”.
Offences: abolition of imprisonment and conversion to summary offence
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London Hackney Carriages Act 1843 (c. 86)
In section 28 of the London Hackney Carriages Act 1843, after “for every such offence”, there is inserted “ of which he is convicted before the justice ”.
Town Police Clauses Act 1847 (c. 89)
In section 26 of the Town Police Clauses Act 1847, for the words from “committed by them” to the end, there is substituted “ liable to a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale ”.
In section 28 of that Act, after “for each offence”, there is inserted “ of which he is convicted before the justice ”.
In section 29 of that Act, after “for every such offence”, there is inserted “ of which he is convicted before the justice ”.
In section 36 of that Act, after “liable”, there is inserted “ on conviction before the justices ”.
Seamen’s and Soldiers' False Characters Act 1906 (c. 5)
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Aliens Restriction (Amendment) Act 1919 (c. 92)
In section 3(2) of the Aliens Restriction (Amendment) Act 1919, for “imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months” there is substituted “ a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale ”.
Polish Resettlement Act 1947 (c. 19)
In the Schedule to the Polish Resettlement Act 1947, in paragraph 7, for “imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months” there is substituted “ a fine not exceeding level 1 on the standard scale ”.
Army Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 18)
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Air Force Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 19)
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Naval Discipline Act 1957 (c. 53)
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Slaughterhouses Act 1974 (c. 3)
In section 4 of the Slaughterhouses Act 1974, after subsection (5) there is inserted—
Water Industry Act 1991 (c. 56)
In Schedule 6 to the Water Industry Act 1991, in paragraph 5(4), for paragraphs (a) and (b) there is substituted “ , on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale ”.
Water Resources Act 1991 (c. 57)
In section 205(6) of the Water Resources Act 1991, for paragraphs (a) and (b) there is substituted “on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale”.
Transport Act 2000 (c. 38)
In section 82(4) of the Transport Act 2000, after “subsection (1)” there is inserted “ or (2) ”.
Reserve Forces Act 1996 (c. 14)
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Jury service
The Juries Act 1974 (c. 23) is amended as follows.
For section 1 (qualification for jury service) there is substituted—
Section 9(1) (certain persons entitled to be excused from jury service) shall cease to have effect.
In section 9(2) (discretionary excusal) after “may” there is inserted “ , subject to section 9A(1A) of this Act, ”.
After section 9(2) (discretionary excusal) there is inserted—
In section 9(3) (discretionary excusal) after “above” there is inserted “ or any failure by the appropriate officer to excuse him as required by subsection (2A) above ”.
In section 9A(1) (discretionary deferral) after “may” there is inserted “ , subject to subsection (2) below, ”.
After section 9A(1) (discretionary deferral) there is inserted—
For section 9A(2) (discretionary deferral) there is substituted—
After section 9A(2) (discretionary deferral) there is inserted—
In section 9A(3) (discretionary deferral) after “above” there is inserted “ or any failure by the appropriate officer to defer his attendance as required by subsection (1A) above ”.
After section 9A (discretionary deferral) there is inserted—
In section 19 (payment for jury service), after subsection (1) there is inserted—
In section 20 (offences), for subsection (5)(d) there is substituted—
For Schedule 1 (ineligibility and disqualification for and excusal from jury service) there is substituted—
Parenting orders and referral orders
Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (c. 37)
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Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6)
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Child sex offences for purposes of section 327A
Offences under provisions repealed by Sexual Offences Act 2003
An offence under—
section 5 or 6 of the Sexual Offences Act 1956 (intercourse with girl under 13 or 16), or
section 28 of that Act (causing or encouraging the prostitution of, intercourse with or indecent assault on girl under 16).
An offence under any of—where the victim or (as the case may be) the other party was under 18 at the time of the offence.
section 1 of that Act (rape),
section 10 of that Act (incest by a man), and
An offence under section 1 of the Indecency with Children Act 1960 (indecent conduct towards child under 14).
An offence under section 9 of the Theft Act 1968 of burglary with intent to commit rape where the intended offence was an offence against a person under 18.
An offence under section 54 of the Criminal Law Act 1977 (incitement of child under 16 to commit incest).
An offence under section 3 of the Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act 2000 (abuse of position of trust).
Other offences
An offence under any of—
sections 9 to 15A of that Act (child sex offences),
An offence under any of—where the victim of the offence was under 18 at the time of the offence.
section 61 of that Act (administering a substance with intent),
An offence under section 66, 66A, 66B(2) or (3) , 67 or 67A of that Act (exposure, sending etc photograph or film of genitals, sharing intimate photograph or film with intent to cause alarm, distress or humiliation or for purpose of obtaining sexual gratification and voyeurism) where the victim or intended victim of the offence was under 18 at the time of the offence.
An offence under—
section 1 of the Protection of Children Act 1978 (indecent photographs of children), or
section 160 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 (possession of indecent photograph of child).
An offence under section 170 of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (penalty for fraudulent evasion of duty etc) in relation to goods prohibited to be imported under section 42 of the Customs Consolidation Act 1876 (indecent or obscene articles) where the prohibited goods included any indecent photograph showing a person under 18.
An offence under section 63 of the Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008 (possession of extreme pornographic images) in relation to an image showing a person under 18.
An offence under section 62(1) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 (possession of prohibited images of children).
An offence under section 69 of the Serious Crime Act 2015 (possession of paedophile manual).
General
A reference in this Schedule to an offence (“offence A”) includes—
a reference to an attempt to commit offence A,
a reference to a conspiracy to commit offence A,
a reference to incitement to commit offence A,
a reference to an offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 in relation to which offence A is the offence (or one of the offences) which the person intended or believed would be committed, and
a reference to aiding and abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of offence A.
A reference in this Schedule to an offence (“offence A”) includes—and section 48 of that Act (attempts etc. outside England and Wales) applies for the purposes of paragraph (b) as if the reference in subsection (3)(b) to any of the following provisions of that Act were a reference to that paragraph.
a reference to an offence under section 70 of the Army Act 1955, section 70 of the Air Force Act 1955 or section 42 of the Naval Discipline Act 1957 as respects which the corresponding civil offence (within the meaning given by the section in question) is offence A, and
a reference to an offence under section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 as respects which the corresponding offence under the law of England and Wales (within the meaning given by that section) is offence A;
Criminal record certificates: amendments of Part 5 of Police Act 1997
The Police Act 1997 (c. 50) is amended as follows.
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Section 113 (criminal record certificates) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1)—
at the beginning there is inserted“ Subject to subsection (4A) ”,
in paragraph (a), after “prescribed” there is inserted“ manner and ”, and
in paragraph (b), after “pays” there is inserted“ in the prescribed manner ”.
After subsection (4) there is inserted—.
Section 115 (enhanced criminal record certificates) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1)—
at the beginning there is inserted“ Subject to subsection (9A), ”,
in paragraph (a), after “prescribed” there is inserted“ manner and ”, and
in paragraph (b), after “pays” there is inserted“ in the prescribed manner ”.
In subsection (2), for paragraphs (a) to (c) there is substituted“ for such purposes as may be prescribed under this subsection ”.
Subsections (3) to (5) and subsections (6C) to (6E) are omitted.
After subsection (9) there is inserted—
In section 116 (enhanced criminal record certificates: judicial appointments and Crown employment), in subsection (2)(b), for the words from “to which” onwards there is substituted “ of such description as may be prescribed ”.
Section 120 (registered persons) is amended as follows.
For subsection (2) there is substituted—
Subsection (3) is omitted.
After section 120 there is inserted—
At the end of the sidenote to section 120A (refusal and cancellation of registration) there is inserted “ on grounds related to disclosure ”.
After section 120A there is inserted—
After section 122 there is inserted—
After section 124 (offences: disclosure) there is inserted—
In section 125 (regulations)—
subsection (3) is omitted, and
in subsection (4), the words “to which subsection (3) does not apply” are omitted.
Further minor and consequential amendments
Bail
Bail Act 1976 (c. 63)
The Bail Act 1976 is amended as follows.
Section 5(6A)(a) (supplementary provisions about decisions on bail) is amended as follows.
After sub-paragraph (ii) there is inserted—.
After sub-paragraph (iii) there is inserted.
In Part 3 of Schedule 1 (interpretation) for paragraph 2 there is substituted—
Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54)
Section 81 of the Supreme Court Act 1981 (bail) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1)(g) the word “or” at the end of sub-paragraph (ii) is omitted and after that sub-paragraph there is inserted—.
In subsection (1)(g) after sub-paragraph (iii) there is inserted.
Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60)
In section 38(2A) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (bail granted by custody officer after charge)—
for “2” there is substituted “ 2(1) ”, and
after “1976” there is inserted “ (disregarding paragraph 2(2) of that Part) ”.
Charging etc
Criminal Law Act 1977 (c. 45)
In section 39 of the Criminal Law Act 1977 (service of summons and citation throughout United Kingdom) for subsection (1) there is substituted—
Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43)
The Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 is amended as follows.
Section 1 (issue of summons to accused or warrant for his arrest) is amended as follows.
In subsection (3) after “section” there is inserted “ upon an information being laid ”.
In subsection (4) after “summons” there is inserted “ , or a written charge and requisition, ”.
In subsection (6) after “has” there is inserted “ , or a written charge and requisition have, ”.
After subsection (6) there is inserted—
After subsection (7) there is inserted—
In section 150(1) (interpretation of other terms) after the definition of “prescribed” there is inserted—.
Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 (c. 23)
Section 15 of the Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 (interpretation) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1) after the definition of “public authority” there is inserted—.
In subsection (2), after paragraph (b) there is inserted—.
Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 (c. 33)
Section 51 of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 (intimidation, etc, of witnesses, jurors and others) is amended as follows.
In subsection (9), for the word “and” at the end of the definition of “potential” there is substituted—
In subsection (10)(a), after sub-paragraph (i) there is inserted—.
Drug Trafficking Act 1994 (c. 37)
Section 60 of the Drug Trafficking Act 1994 (prosecution by order of Commissioners of Customs and Excise) is amended as follows.
In subsection (6) for the word “and” at the end of the definition of “officer” there is substituted—.
In subsection (6A), after paragraph (a) there is inserted—.
Merchant Shipping Act 1995 (c. 21)
In subsection (2)(a), after sub-paragraph (i) there is inserted—.
After subsection (2) there is inserted—
Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
Paragraph 11 of Schedule 4 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (proceedings for an offence: timing) is amended as follows.
In sub-paragraph (1), after paragraph (a) there is inserted—.
After sub-paragraph (2) there is inserted—
Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c. 29)
Section 85 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (proceedings) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1), after paragraph (a) there is inserted—.
After subsection (8) there is inserted—
Crime (International Co-operation) Act 2003 (c. 32)
After section 4 of the Crime (International Co-operation) Act 2003 there is inserted—
Disclosure
Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 (c. 23)
Criminal Justice Act 1987 (c. 38)
In section 9 of the Criminal Justice Act 1987 (preparatory hearings in serious fraud cases etc.), paragraphs (i) and (iii) of subsection (5) are omitted.
Criminal Justice (Serious Fraud) (Northern Ireland) Order 1988 (S.I. 1988/1846 (N.I. 16))
In Article 8 of the Criminal Justice (Serious Fraud) (Northern Ireland) Order 1988 (preparatory hearings in serious fraud cases etc.), sub-paragraphs (i) and (iii) of paragraph (5) are omitted.
Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 (c. 25)
The Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 is amended as follows.
In section 3 (primary disclosure by prosecutor), for the heading there is substituted “Initial duty of prosecutor to disclose”.
In section 4 (primary disclosure: further provisions), in the heading for “Primary disclosure” there is substituted “ Initial duty to disclose ”.
In section 5 (compulsory disclosure by accused), subsections (6) to (9) are omitted.
In section 6 (voluntary disclosure by accused), subsection (3) is omitted.
Section 7 (secondary disclosure by prosecutor) shall cease to have effect.
Section 9 (continuing duty of prosecutor to disclose) shall cease to have effect.
In section 10 (prosecutor’s failure to observe time limits), in subsection (1), for paragraph (b) there is substituted—
In section 12 (time limits)—
in subsection (1), for “and 7” there is substituted “ , 6B, 6C and 7A(5) ”;
in subsection (5), for “7” there is substituted “ 7A(5) ”.
In section 13 (time limits: transitional), for subsection (2) there is substituted—
In section 14 (public interest: review for summary trials), in subsection (2)(a), for “7(5), 8(5) or 9(8)” there is substituted “ 7A(8) or 8(5) ”.
In section 15 (public interest: review in other cases), in subsection (2)(a), for “7(5), 8(5) or 9(8)” there is substituted “ 7A(8) or 8(5) ”.
In section 16 (applications: opportunity to be heard), in paragraph (a) and in the words after paragraph (c), for “7(5), 8(5), 9(8)” there is substituted “ 7A(8), 8(5) ”.
In section 17 (confidentiality of disclosed information), in subsection (1)(a), for “7, 9” there is substituted “ 7A ”.
In section 19 (rules of court) in subsection (2)(b) and (d), for “7(5), 8(2) or (5), 9(8)” there is substituted “ 5(5B), 6B(6), 6E(5), 7A(8), 8(2) or (5) ”.
In section 20 (other statutory rules as to disclosure)—
subsection (2) is omitted, and
In section 31 (preparatory hearings in complex cases etc.), paragraphs (a) and (c) of subsection (6) are omitted.
Section 77 (orders and regulations) is amended as follows.
In subsection (5)—
after “No” there is inserted “ regulations or ”, and
after “section” there is inserted “ 6A or ”.
In subsection (6)(b) after “regulations” there is inserted “ (other than regulations under section 6A) ”.
In Schedule 4 (modifications for Northern Ireland), in paragraph 7, for “3(6), 7(5), 8(5) or 9(8)” there is substituted “ 3(6), 7A(8) or 8(5) ”.
Sexual Offences (Protected Material) Act 1997 (c. 39)
Trials on indictment without a jury
Indictments Act 1915 (c. 90)
Section 5 of the Indictments Act 1915 (orders for amendment of indictment, separate trial and postponement of trial) is amended as follows.
In subsection (5)(a) for “are to” there is substituted “ (if there is one) ”.
In subsection (5)(b) after “discharged” there is inserted “ under paragraph (a) ”.
Criminal Law Act 1967 (c. 58)
In section 6(4) of the Criminal Law Act 1967 (trial of offences) after “jury” there is inserted “ or otherwise act ”.
Criminal Justice Act 1967 (c. 80)
In section 17 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967 (entry of verdict of not guilty by order of a judge)—
for “the defendant being given in charge to a jury” there is substituted “ any further steps being taken in the proceedings ”, and
after “verdict of a jury” there is inserted “ or a court ”.
Criminal Law Act (Northern Ireland) 1967 (c. 18)
In section 6(3) of the Criminal Law Act (Northern Ireland) 1967 (trial of offences) after “jury” there is inserted “ or otherwise act ”.
Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19)
In section 7(2)(c) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (power to order retrial)—
for “the jury were discharged from giving a verdict” there is substituted “ no verdict was given ”, and
for “convicting him” there is substituted “ his being convicted ”.
Judicature (Northern Ireland) Act 1978 (c. 23)
Section 48 of the Judicature (Northern Ireland) Act 1978 (committal for trial on indictment) is amended as follows.
In subsection (6A) for “the jury are sworn” there is substituted “ the time when the jury are sworn ”.
After subsection (6A) there is inserted—
Criminal Appeal (Northern Ireland) Act 1980 (c. 47)
In section 6(3)(c) of the Criminal Appeal (Northern Ireland) Act 1980 (power to order retrial) for “the jury were discharged from giving a verdict” there is substituted “ no verdict was given ”.
Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54)
Section 76 of the Supreme Court Act 1981 (committal for trial: alteration of place of trial) is amended as follows.
In subsection (2A) for “the jury are sworn” there is substituted “ the time when the jury are sworn ”
After subsection (2A) there is inserted—
Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60)
Section 77 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (confessions of mentally handicapped persons) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1) after “indictment” there is inserted “ with a jury ”.
In subsection (2) after “indictment” there is inserted “ with a jury ”.
After subsection (2) there is inserted—
Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 (c. 23)
The Prosecution of Offences Act 1985 is amended as follows.
In section 7A(6)(a) (powers of non-legal staff) for “by a jury” there is substituted “ on indictment ”.
Section 22 (power of Secretary of State to set time limits in relation to preliminary stages of criminal proceedings) is amended as follows.
In subsection (11A)—
for “when a jury is sworn” there is substituted “ at the time when a jury is sworn ”,
for “a jury is sworn” there is substituted “ the time when a jury is sworn ”.
After that subsection there is inserted—
Criminal Justice Act 1987 (c. 38)
The Criminal Justice Act 1987 is amended as follows.
Section 7 (power to order preparatory hearing) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1) for “the jury are sworn” there is substituted “ the time when the jury are sworn ”.
After subsection (2) there is inserted—
Section 9 (the preparatory hearing) is amended as follows.
In subsection (4)(b) for “the jury” there is substituted “ a jury ”.
In subsection (13) for “no jury shall be sworn” there is substituted “ the preparatory hearing shall not be concluded ”.
Section 10 (later stages of trial) is amended as follows.
In subsection (2) after “jury” there is inserted “ or, in the case of a trial without a jury, the judge ”.
In subsection (3) for “deciding whether to give leave” there is substituted “ doing anything under subsection (2) above or in deciding whether to do anything under it ”.
In subsection (4) for “Except as provided by this section” there is substituted “ Except as provided by this section, in the case of a trial with a jury ”.
Criminal Justice (Serious Fraud) (Northern Ireland) Order 1988 (S.I. 1988/1846 (N.I. 16))
The Criminal Justice (Serious Fraud) (Northern Ireland) Order 1988 is amended as follows.
Article 6 (power to order preparatory hearing) is amended as follows.
In paragraph (1) for “the jury are sworn” there is substituted “ the time when the jury are sworn ”.
After paragraph (2) there is inserted—
Article 8 (the preparatory hearing) is amended as follows.
In paragraph (4)(b) for “the jury” there is substituted “ a jury ”.
In paragraph (12) for “no jury shall be sworn” there is substituted “ the preparatory hearing shall not be concluded ”.
Article 9 (later stages of trial) (as originally enacted) is amended as follows.
In paragraph (1) after “jury” there is inserted “ or, in the case of a trial without a jury, the judge ”.
In paragraph (2) for “deciding whether to give leave” there is substituted “ doing anything under paragraph (1) or in deciding whether to do anything under it ”.
In paragraph (3) for “Except as provided by this Article” there is substituted “ Except as provided by this Article, in the case of a trial with a jury ”.
Article 9 (later stages of trial) (as substituted by paragraph 6 of Schedule 3 to the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 (c. 25)) is amended as follows.
In paragraph (2) after “jury” there is inserted “ or, in the case of a trial without a jury, the judge ”.
In paragraph (3) for “deciding whether to give leave” there is substituted “ doing anything under paragraph (2) or in deciding whether to do anything under it ”.
In paragraph (4) for “Except as provided by this Article” there is substituted “ Except as provided by this Article, in the case of a trial with a jury ”.
Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12))
Article 75 of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (confessions of mentally handicapped persons) is amended as follows.
In paragraph (1) after “indictment” there is inserted “ with a jury ”.
In paragraph (2) after “indictment” there is inserted “ with a jury ”.
After paragraph (2) there is inserted—
Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 (c. 33)
The Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 is amended as follows.
In section 35(2) (effect of accused’s silence at trial) after “indictment” there is inserted “ with a jury ”.
In section 51(10)(b) (intimidation of witnesses, jurors and others) after “finding” there is inserted “ otherwise than in circumstances where the proceedings are continued without a jury ”.
Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 (c. 25)
The Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 is amended as follows.
Section 29 (power to order preparatory hearing) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1)(a) for “the jury are sworn” there is substituted “ the time when the jury are sworn ”.
After subsection (4) there is inserted—
In section 31(4)(b) (the preparatory hearing) for “the jury” there is substituted “ a jury ”.
Section 34 (later stages of trial) is amended as follows.
In subsection (2) after “jury” there is inserted “ or, in the case of a trial without a jury, the judge ”.
In subsection (3) for “deciding whether to give leave” there is substituted “ doing anything under subsection (2) or in deciding whether to do anything under it ”.
In subsection (4) for “Except as provided by this section” there is substituted “ Except as provided by this section, in the case of a trial with a jury ”.
In section 35(2) (appeals to Court of Appeal) for “no jury shall be sworn” there is substituted “ the preparatory hearing shall not be concluded ”.
In section 36(2) (appeals to House of Lords) for “no jury shall be sworn” there is substituted “ the preparatory hearing shall not be concluded ”.
Section 39 (meaning of pre-trial hearing) is amended as follows.
In subsection (3)—
for “when a jury is sworn” there is substituted “ at the time when a jury is sworn ”,
for “a jury is sworn” there is substituted “ the time when a jury is sworn ”.
After that subsection there is inserted—
Schedule 4 (modifications for Northern Ireland) is amended as follows.
In paragraph 15 after the substituted version of section 39(2) there is inserted—
In paragraph 15 in paragraph (b) of the substituted version of section 39(3)—
for “when a jury is sworn” there is substituted “ at the time when a jury is sworn ”, and
for “a jury is sworn” there is substituted “ the time when a jury is sworn ”.
After paragraph 15 there is inserted—
Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (c. 37)
In paragraph 2(2) of Schedule 3 to the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (applications for dismissal) for “a jury properly to convict him” there is substituted “ him to be properly convicted ”.
Youth Justice and Criminal Evidence Act 1999 (c. 23)
The Youth Justice and Criminal Evidence Act 1999 is amended as follows.
In section 32 (warning to jury) after “indictment” there is inserted “ with a jury ”.
In section 39(1) (warning to jury) after “indictment” there is inserted “ with a jury ”.
Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24)
In paragraph 19(6)(c) of Schedule 1 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (general interpretation) after “finding” there is inserted “ otherwise than in circumstances where the proceedings are continued without a jury ”.
Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c. 29)
In section 316(9)(c) of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (general interpretation) after “finding” there is inserted “ otherwise than in circumstances where the proceedings are continued without a jury ”.
Evidence
Criminal Procedure Act 1865 (c. 18)
In section 6 of the Criminal Procedure Act 1865 (witness’s conviction for offence may be proved if not admitted)—
for “A witness may be” there is substituted “ If, upon a witness being lawfully ”;
the words “and upon being so questioned, if” are omitted.
Criminal Evidence Act 1898 (c. 36)
In section 1 of the Criminal Evidence Act 1898 (defendant as witness)—
at the beginning of subsection (2) there is inserted “ Subject to section 101 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (admissibility of evidence of defendant’s bad character), ”;
subsection (3) is omitted.
Army Act 1955 (c. 18)
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Air Force Act 1955 (c. 19)
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Naval Discipline Act 1957 (c. 53)
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Armed Forces Act 1976 (c. 52)
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60)
Section 74 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (conviction as evidence of commission of offence) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1) (commission of offence by non-defendant) for the words from “, where to do so” to “committed that offence” there is substituted “ that that person committed that offence, where evidence of his having done so is admissible ”.
In subsection (3) (commission of offence by defendant) the words from “in so far” to “he is charged,” are omitted.
Miscellaneous
Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19)
The Criminal Appeal Act 1968 is amended as follows.
In section 31(1) (powers of Court of Appeal exercisable by single judge) after paragraph (a) there is inserted—.
In section 31A (powers of Court of Appeal exercisable by registrar) after subsection (4) there is inserted—
In section 45 (construction of references to Court of Appeal)—
in subsection (1), for “section 44A” there is substituted “ sections 44A and 51 ”,
in subsection (2) after “sections” there is inserted “ 23A, ”.
Section 51 (interpretation) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1) the definition of “the defendant” is omitted.
After that subsection there is inserted—
Criminal Appeal (Northern Ireland) Act 1980 (c. 47)
The Criminal Appeal (Northern Ireland) Act 1980 is amended as follows.
Section 19 (legal aid) is amended as follows.
In subsection (1) after “an appeal” there is inserted “ under this Part of this Act ”.
In subsection (1A) for “for the purpose” there is substituted “ in respect ”.
In subsection (1A)(a)—
the words “application for leave to” are omitted, and
after “hearings)” there is inserted “ or section 47 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 ”.
For subsection (1A)(b) there is substituted—
After subsection (1A) there is inserted—
In subsection (3) for “an appellant” there is substituted “ a person ”.
Section 28 (costs) is amended as follows.
In subsection (2)(a) for “this Part” there is substituted “ section 19(1) ”.
After subsection (2) there is inserted—
In subsection (2A) after “(2)(a)” there is inserted “ or (2AA) ”.
In subsection (2G)—
after “(2)(a)” there is inserted “ or (2AA) ”, and
for “subsection (2)” there is substituted “ subsections (2) and (2AA) ”.
For section 31(3) (definition of defendant and prosecutor) there is substituted—
In section 45 (powers of Court of Appeal exercisable by single judge) after subsection (3B) there is inserted—
Criminal Justice Act 1988 (c. 33)
In section 36 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 (reviews of sentencing)—
in subsection (3), for “10” there is substituted “ 11 ”,
in subsection (9)(b), for “10 and 35(1)” there is substituted “ 11 and 35(1) ”.
Criminal Appeal Act 1995 (c. 35)
In section 15(2)(a) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1995 (investigations by Criminal Cases Review Commission for Court of Appeal) for “case”, in both places where it occurs, there is substituted “ appeal or application for leave to appeal ”.
Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6)
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Repeals
Repeals relating to amendments of Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984
In section 1(8), the word “and” at the end of paragraph (c).
In section 54(1), the words “and record or cause to be recorded”.
In section 63(3)(a), the words “is in police detention or”.
In section 67—the word “such” in subsections (9), (10)(a), (b) and (c) and in both places where it occurs in subsection (11), and the words “of practice to which this section applies” in subsection (9A).
In section 113—in subsection (4), the words “issued under that subsection”, in subsection (8), the words “of practice issued under this section”, and in subsection (10), the word “such” in both places where it occurs.
Bail
In section 3(6), the words “to secure that”.
In section 3A(5), the words “for the purpose of preventing that person from”.
In section 5, in subsection (3), the words from “with a view” to “another court”, and in subsection (6), in paragraph (a) the words “to the High Court or” and paragraph (b).
In section 5A(2), in the substituted version of section 5(3), the words from “with a view” to “vary the conditions”.
Section 26.
In Schedule 10, paragraphs 15 and 34.
Disclosure
Section 5(6) to (9).
Section 6(3).
Section 7.
Section 9.
Section 20(2).
Section 31(6)(a) and (c).
Allocation and sending of offences
In section 4, the paragraph beginning “Where the proceedings”.
In section 5, the paragraph beginning “Where the proceedings”.
Section 41(5A).
In section 80, the definition of “Court of summary jurisdiction”.
In section 9(1), the words “, other than committal proceedings”.
In section 36(1), the definition of “committal proceedings”.
Section 5(6A)(a)(i).
In section 8B(6)(a), the words “commits or”.
Section 24(1A) and (2).
In section 25, subsections (3) to (8).
. . .
Section 42.
Section 97A.
Section 103.
Section 106.
In section 128, in subsection (1)(b), the words “inquiring into or”, and in each of subsections (1A)(a), (3A), (3C)(a) and (3E)(a), the word “5,”.
In section 130(1), the word “5,”.
Section 145(1)(f).
In section 150(1), the definition of “committal proceedings”.
In section 155(2)(a), the words “8 (except subsection (9))”.
In Schedule 3, paragraph 2(a).
In Schedule 5, paragraph 2.
In Schedule 7, paragraph 73.
Section 76(5).
Section 77(4).
In section 81—in subsection (1)(a), the words “who has been committed in custody for appearance before the Crown Court or in relation to whose case a notice of transfer has been given under a relevant transfer provision or”, subsection (1)(g)(i), subsection (7).
Section 61.
In Schedule 9, paragraph 1(a).
Section 62(10)(a)(i).
In section 71, the paragraph beginning “Where the proceedings”.
Section 76(9).
Section 78(3).
In section 16, subsections (1)(b), (2)(aa) and (12).
In section 23A(1)(b), the words from “under” to “1998”.
In Schedule 1, paragraphs 2 and 3.
In section 11—subsection (2)(a), subsection (3), in subsection (7), the word “(3),”, in subsection (8), the word “(3),”, subsections (9) and (10), in subsection (11), paragraphs (a) and (d).
In Schedule 2, paragraphs 1, 9 and 14.
Section 23(5).
Section 24(5).
In section 26, the paragraph beginning “This section shall not apply”.
In section 27, the paragraph beginning “This section shall not apply”.
Section 30(4A).
Section 33.
In section 40(1), the words “were disclosed to a magistrates' court inquiring into the offence as examining justices or”.
Section 41.
Section 144.
In Schedule 15, paragraphs 10, 66 and 104.
Section 11(3A).
Section 13(7).
Section 16(6A).
Section 20(8A).
Section 53.
Section 55(1).
Schedule 6.
In Schedule 11, paragraph 25.
Section 34(2)(a).
Section 36(2)(a).
Section 37(2)(a).
In Schedule 9, paragraphs 12, 17(c), 18(d), 25, 27, 29 and 49.
In Schedule 10, paragraphs 40 and 71.
In section 1(2), paragraphs (a) to (c) and, in paragraph (cc), the words from “under” to the end.
In section 5, subsections (2) and (3).
In section 13(1), paragraphs (a) to (c) of the modified section 3(8).
Section 28(1)(b).
Section 44(3).
Section 45.
Section 49(4).
Section 68.
In Schedule 1, paragraphs 2 to 5, 8, 10, 12, 13, 15 to 19, 22(3), 24 to 26, 28 to 32, and 34 to 38.
Schedule 2.
Section 47(6).
In Schedule 3, in paragraph 2, sub-paragraphs (4) and (5), paragraph 12, and in paragraph 13(2), the words from “unless” to the end.
In Schedule 8, paragraphs 8, 37, 40, 65 and 93.
Section 67(3).
In Schedule 4, paragraphs 16, 39 and 47.
In Schedule 13, paragraphs 96, 111 and 137.
Section 27(10).
In section 42(3), paragraphs (a) and (b).
In section 89(2)(b), the words “trial or”.
In section 140(1)(b), the words “was committed to the Crown Court to be tried or dealt with or by which he”.
In Schedule 9, paragraphs 62, 63, 64(2), 65, 91 and 201.
In Schedule 11, paragraph 9.
Evidence of bad character
Hearsay evidence
Part 2.
Schedule 2.
In Schedule 13, paragraphs 2 to 5.
In Schedule 15, paragraph 32.
In Schedule 4, paragraph 6(2).
Section 22(2)(b).
In Schedule 7, paragraph 1(6)(b).
Sentencing: general
In section 10 subsection (2)(c) and the word “or” immediately preceding it.
Section 11(4).
In section 82(4A), paragraph (e) and the word “or” immediately preceding it.
Section 133(2).
In Schedule 6A, the entry relating to section 123(3) of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000.
In section 37(1B), the words “109(2),”.
In section 45A(1)(b), the words from “except” to “1997”.
In section 68(2)(d), the words “a probation order has been made in respect of him or he has been”.
In Schedule 9A, in paragraph 4(2)(g), the words “placed on probation or”.
Section 65.
Schedule 5.
In Schedule 12—in paragraph 8(8), paragraph (d), and in paragraph 9(3), paragraph (c).
In section 234—in subsection (1), the words after paragraph (b), in subsection (3), the words from “or to vary” to “one hundred”, and subsection (11).
In Schedule 1, paragraph 15(5).
In Schedule 2, paragraphs 2 and 3.
In Schedule 4, paragraphs 6(2), 7, 10(1), 12(1), 13 and 15(10).
In section 18, subsection (2).
In section 38(4)(i), the words “section 37(4A) or 65 of the 1991 Act or”.
Sections 101(1).
In section 121(12), the words from the beginning to “paragraphs 56 to 60 of Schedule 8 to this Act;”.
In Schedule 7, paragraph 50.
In Schedule 8, paragraphs 11, 13(2), 56, 58, 59, 79 to 84, 86 to 91, 94, 97, 132 and 135(3) and (4).
Section 6(4)(d).
Section 12(4).
Sections 34 to 36A.
In section 36B, subsections (4) and (8) and, in subsection (9), the words from “a community punishment order” to “a drug abstinence order”.
In section 37, in subsection (9) the words “who on conviction is under 16” and subsection (10).
In section 40A, subsection (4), in subsection (9) the words “who on conviction is under 16” and subsection (10).
In section 60, in subsection (1), paragraph (c) and the word “or” immediately preceding it.
Section 62.
Section 69(11).
Section 73(7).
Section 84.
Section 85.
Section 91(2).
Section 100(4).
Section 109.
Section 110(3).
Section 111(3).
In section 112(1)(a), the words “109,”.
In section 113, in subsection (1)(a), the words “a serious offence or” and in subsection (3), the words “ “serious offence”,” and “109,”.
In section 114(1)(b), the words “a serious offence,”.
In section 115, the word “109,”.
In section 160—in subsection (2), in paragraph (a) the words from “42(2E)” to “Schedule 2” and in paragraph (b) the words from “122(7)” to the end, in subsection (3), in paragraph (a) the words “45, 50, 58, 58A(4), 85(7)”, paragraph (b) and the word “or” immediately preceding it, subsection (4), and in subsection (5), in paragraph (a) the words from “or paragraph 7” to the end, and in paragraph (b) the words from “42(2E)” to the end.
Section 161(2) to (4).
Section 162.
In section 163, in the definition of “affected person”, paragraphs (b) and (c), the definitions of “the appropriate officer of the court”, “community punishment and rehabilitation order”, “community rehabilitation order”, “community rehabilitation period”, “community punishment order”, the definitions of “drug abstinence order”, “drug treatment and testing order”, “falling to be imposed under section 109(2), 110(2) or 11(2)”, “pre-sentence report”, “protecting the public from serious harm”', in the definition of “responsible officer”, paragraphs (b) to (ee) and the words from “except that” to “that section;”, the definitions of “review hearing”, “sexual offence”, “specified Class A drug”, “suspended sentence supervision order”, “the testing requirement”, “the treatment provider”, “the treatment requirement”, “the treatment and testing period”, “trigger offence” and “violent offence”.
In section 168—in subsection (1), the words “to subsection (2) below and”, and subsections (2) and (3).
Schedule 2.
Schedule 4.
In Schedule 7, paragraph 3(4).
In Schedule 8, paragraph 3(4).
In Schedule 9, paragraphs 7, 24(a), 26(2), 28, 29, 52, 54(3), 55, 61, 76, 81, 82, 89(2), 90(2), 94, 102, 137 to 145, 147(2) and (3)(a) to (d) and (e)(i), 151, 174, 176(2) to (5) and (7), 177(2) and (3), 184, 185, 186(3) and (4), 187(2), (3) and (5), 196 and 202.
Section 63.
Section 64(5)(e).
In section 78(1), the definition of “community order”.
In Schedule 7, paragraphs 1 to 3, 104 to 107, 111(b), 123(a) and (c) to (f), 124(a) and (b), 133, 139, 140, 161, 162, 165 to 172, 177, 179, 189, 196(c)(ii) and (iii), 197(c) and (g)(ii), 198 to 200 and 206(a).
Life sentences
In section 2(4)(b)(i), the words “or 29(1)”.
Section 3(9).
Paragraph 3 of the Schedule.
Section 29.
Section 31(4).
Section 33.
In section 34(3), the words from the beginning to “advocate; and”.
Alteration of penalties for summary offences
Section 5.
Section 10.
In section 28, the words from “, or, in the discretion” to “fourteen days”.
In section 29, the words from “, or, in the discretion” to the end.
In section 36, the words from “, or, in the discretion” to “one month”.
In section 2—in paragraph (a), the words from “, or, in the discretion” to the end, and in paragraph (b), the words from “, or in the discretion” to the end.
In section 3(a), the words from “, or, in the discretion” to the end.
In section 19—in subsection (2), the words from “, or to imprisonment” to the end, and in subsection (3), the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 14(7) (as remaining in force for the purposes of section 95), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or to both such imprisonment and such fine”.
In section 95(3), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or to both such imprisonment and such fine”.
In section 14(1B), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“, or both”.
In section 5—in subsection (1), the words “other than the last foregoing section” and the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end, and subsection (2).
In section 1(1), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months, or”, and“, or to both such imprisonment and such fine”.
In section 2(1)—paragraph (a) of the proviso, the word “; or” immediately preceding paragraph (b) of the proviso, and the words “or to both”.
In section 19(1), the words “to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”.
In section 161, the words from “, or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 171(1), the words from “, or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 191, the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 193, the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 196(3), the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 197(3), the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 19(1), the words “to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”.
In section 161, the words from “, or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 171(1), the words from “, or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 191, the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In sections 193, the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 196(3), the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 197(3), the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 96, the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 99(3), the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 45(6), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding one month, or”, and“, or to both such imprisonment and such fine”.
In section 8(1), the words—“or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months, or to both”, and“in any case”.
In section 40—in subsection (1), the words from “or imprisonment” to the end, and in subsection (2), the words from “or imprisonment” to the end.
In section 3—in subsection (1), the words “other than the last foregoing section” and the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end, and subsection (2).
In Schedule 1—in paragraph 1(3), the words “to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or” and “, or to both”, and in paragraph 2(4), the words “to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or” and “, or to both”.
In section 16(5), the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 48(2), the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 6(9), the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 14(2), the words from “or to imprisonment” to the end.
In section 69, the words from “or imprisonment” to the end.
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
In section 3(1)—paragraph (a), the word “; or” immediately preceding paragraph (b), and the words “or to both”.
In Schedule 11—in paragraph 8(3), the words “to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or” and “, or to both”, and in paragraph 9(4), the words “to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or” and “, or to both”.
In section 84(3), the words—“imprisonment for a term not exceeding 4 months or”, and“to both”.
In paragraph 6 of Schedule 1, the words—“or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 months,”, and“in either case”.
Section 43(5).
In section 103(9), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or both”.
In section 129(3), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or to both”.
In section 22(3), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or to both”.
In section 23(2), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or to both”.
In section 25(3), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or to both”.
In section 2(5), the words—“imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or both”.
In section 206(9), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or to both”.
In Schedule 6, in paragraph 5(5), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or to both”.
In section 105(1), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or”, and“or to both”.
In section 182(3), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or”, and“or to both”.
In section 27(5), the words—“imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or both”.
In section 240(3), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or both”.
In section 57(2)—in paragraph (a), the words “except in a case falling within paragraph (b) below,”, and paragraph (b).
In section 75(5), the words—“imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or”, and“(or both)”.
In section 82(1), the words—“imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months”, and“(or both)”.
In section 87(1), the words—“imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or”, and“(or both)”.
In section 99, the words—“imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months”, and“(or both)”.
In Schedule 1, in paragraph 5(2), the words—“imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or”, and“(or both)”.
In Schedule 1—
in paragraph 23(6), the words from “or imprisonment” to “or both”, and in paragraph 24(6), the words from “or imprisonment” to “or both”.
In section 144(4), the words—“to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or”, and“or to both”.
In section 9—in subsection (1), paragraph (a), the word “, or” immediately preceding paragraph (b) and the words “or to both”, and in subsection (7), paragraph (a), the word “, or” immediately preceding paragraph (b) and the words “or to both”.
Jury service
In section 2(5)(a), the word “9(1),”.
In section 9, subsection (1) and in subsection (2) the words from “and” to the end.
Section 119.
In Schedule 8, paragraph 8.
In Schedule 17, paragraph 7.
In Schedule 18, paragraph 5.
Section 40.
Section 42.
In Schedule 10, paragraph 29.
Repeals relating to amendments of Part 5 of Police Act 1997
In section 115, subsections (3) to (5) and subsections (6C) to (6E).
Section 120(3).
In section 125, subsection (3) and, in subsection (4), the words “to which subsection (3) does not apply”.
Section 104(3)(a).
In Schedule 4, paragraph 25(2)(a).
Section 21.
Section 26(3)(a).
Section 42(7).
In Schedule 2, paragraph 64.
In Schedule 12, paragraph 15(2).
In Schedule 13, paragraph 8(2).
Miscellaneous
Section 10(4).
In section 51(1), the definition of “the defendant”.
In section 1(3), the words “and substantiated on oath”.
Section 12(1)(a)(i).
In section 13(3)(a), the words “the information has been substantiated on oath and”.
In section 19(5), paragraph (c) and the word “or” immediately preceding it.
In Schedule 9, paragraphs 194 and 195.
Transitory, transitional and saving provisions
Sentencing of offenders aged 18 but under 21
If any provision of Part 12 (“the relevant provision”) is to come into force before the day on which section 61 of the Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000 (abolition of sentences of detention in a young offender institution, custody for life, etc.) comes into force (or fully into force) the provision that may be made by order under section 333(1) includes provision modifying the relevant provision with respect to sentences passed, or other things done, at any time before section 61 of that Act comes into force (or fully into force).
. . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Drug treatment and testing orders
A drug treatment and testing order made under section 52 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 before the repeal of that section by this Act is in force (or fully in force) need not include the provision referred to in subsection (6) of section 54 of that Act (periodic review by court) if the treatment and testing period (as defined by section 52(1) of that Act) is less than 12 months.
Drug testing as part of supervision of young offenders after release
Until the coming into force of the repeal by this Act of section 65 of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 (c. 53) (supervision of young offenders after release), that section has effect subject to the following modifications.
In subsection (5B)—
in paragraph (a), for “18 years” there is substituted “ 14 years ”,
for paragraph (b) there is substituted—.
After subsection (5D) there is inserted—
For subsection (10) there is substituted—
Intermittent custody
If section 183 (intermittent custody) is to come into force for any purpose before the commencement of the repeal by this Act of section 78 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6) (which imposes a general limit on the power of a magistrates' court to impose imprisonment), the provision that may be made by order under section 333(1) includes provision modifying any period or number of days specified in section 183 with respect to sentences passed by magistrates' courts before the commencement of that repeal.
Transfer to Scotland of community orders and suspended sentence orders
Until the coming into force of the repeal by the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003 of the Mental Health (Scotland) Act 1984 (c. 36), in the provisions mentioned in sub-paragraph (2) the reference to the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003 has effect as a reference to the Mental Health (Scotland) Act 1984.
Those provisions are—
paragraph 2(4) of Schedule 9 (transfer of community orders to scotland or Northern Ireland), and
paragraph 4 of Schedule 13 (transfer of suspended sentence orders to Scotland or Northern Ireland).